HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?
- A. Increase protein intake
- B. Limit potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase sodium intake
- D. Encourage dairy products
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.
2. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has a yellowish tint to the skin. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Reassure the parents that this is normal
- B. Monitor the infant's bilirubin levels
- C. Increase the frequency of feedings
- D. Administer phototherapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a newborn presents with a yellowish tint to the skin, it can indicate jaundice, which is caused by elevated bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's bilirubin levels is crucial to assess the severity of jaundice and determine the need for further intervention. Reassuring the parents without proper assessment could lead to delayed treatment if jaundice is present. Increasing the frequency of feedings may not address the underlying cause of jaundice. Administering phototherapy is a treatment option that should be based on bilirubin level assessment and healthcare provider's recommendation.
3. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.
4. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle
- D. Abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- C. Constipation
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness due to the effect of high potassium levels on muscle function. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia; instead, hyperreflexia or increased reflexes may be observed. Constipation (Choice C) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Hypotension (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperkalemia; instead, hypertension or normal blood pressure may be present.
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