HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Saturated abdominal dressing
- C. Pain level of 8/10
- D. Temperature of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
2. While assisting a client with a meal, the client suddenly grabs at their neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to:
- A. Ask the client if they are choking
- B. Perform abdominal thrusts
- C. Call for emergency help
- D. Check the client’s airway
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when a client suddenly grabs at their neck and appears frightened is to ask if they are choking. This allows the nurse to gather more information from the client directly. Performing abdominal thrusts (choice B) should only be done if the client is unable to speak, cough, or breathe. Calling for emergency help (choice C) should be done after assessing the situation and confirming choking. Checking the client's airway (choice D) is important but should come after confirming that the client is choking.
3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.
4. When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, why does the nurse closely assess the skin?
- A. Outer skin layer becomes less resilient.
- B. Less frequent bathing may be required.
- C. Skin becomes more subject to bruising.
- D. Sweat glands become less active.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Less frequent bathing may be required.' In older adults, daily bathing or using hot water and harsh soap can lead to excessively dry skin. Therefore, the nurse closely assesses the skin to determine if less frequent bathing is necessary to prevent skin dryness and maintain skin integrity. Choice A is incorrect because the outer skin layer does not become less resilient with age. Choice C is incorrect as aging skin is actually more prone to bruising due to thinning of the skin. Choice D is incorrect because sweat gland activity generally decreases with age, leading to reduced skin moisture rather than increased activity.
5. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action
- A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
- B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
- C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
- D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Seclusion should only be used when necessary and with proper documentation; otherwise, it may be considered unlawful. Placing a client in seclusion without a clear indication or proper documentation could lead to legal ramifications, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because assault and battery do not apply in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as there is no mention of the client posing an imminent threat due to a history of violence. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should not be used solely to maintain the therapeutic milieu but rather for the safety of the client and others.
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