HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has just had a liver biopsy. What position should the nurse place the client in immediately following the procedure?
- A. Supine with the right arm raised above the head
- B. Supine with the head of the bed elevated
- C. Right side-lying with a pillow under the costal margin
- D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed flat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately following a liver biopsy is right side-lying with a pillow under the costal margin. This position helps prevent bleeding by applying pressure to the biopsy site. Placing the client supine with the right arm raised above the head (Choice A) or supine with the head of the bed elevated (Choice B) are not ideal positions for post-liver biopsy care as they do not provide the necessary pressure to the biopsy site. Left side-lying with the head of the bed flat (Choice D) is also not recommended as it does not assist in preventing bleeding after a liver biopsy.
2. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
- B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
- C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
- D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.
3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
4. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.
5. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
- B. Check the urine for color and texture
- C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
- D. Discard the contents of the urinal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.
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