Nursing Elites

1. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Reclining with head elevated
• C. Sitting up with head tilted back
• D. Lying flat on the back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Measure the client's cardiac output
• B. Assess neurological status q15 min
• C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
• D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

3. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

4. A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling very tired. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure vital signs
• B. Auscultate breath sounds
• C. Palpate the abdomen
• D. Observe the skin for bruising

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discontinuing prednisone abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency, which may result in symptoms such as fatigue. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in this situation to assess for potential complications like hypotension, which can be a sign of adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) is important but not the priority when considering the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Palpating the abdomen (choice C) and observing the skin for bruising (choice D) are not directly related to the potential complications of abruptly stopping prednisone.

5. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that healing from the injury can take many months.
• B. Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.
• C. Encourage the client to verbalize her fears about the pain.
• D. Complete an assessment of the client’s functional ability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.

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