Nursing Elites

1. A 1-month-old girl with low-set ears and severe hypotonia has been diagnosed with trisomy 18. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as most likely?

• A. Interrupted family process related to the child's diagnosis
• B. Deficient knowledge related to the genetic disorder
• C. Grieving related to the child's poor prognosis
• D. Ineffective coping related to the stress of providing care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely nursing diagnosis for a 1-month-old girl with trisomy 18, characterized by low-set ears and severe hypotonia, is 'Grieving related to the child's poor prognosis.' Trisomy 18 is associated with a poor prognosis, and families often experience grief as they come to terms with the challenges and uncertainties associated with the condition. 'Interrupted family process' may not be as relevant since the primary focus is on the child's condition. 'Deficient knowledge related to the genetic disorder' could be important but may not be the most likely initial concern, as emotional support for the family is crucial at this point. 'Ineffective coping related to the stress of providing care' is a broad diagnosis that does not specifically address the emotional response to the child's prognosis, which is the primary concern in this case.

2. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. A diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is made and the infant is admitted to the pediatric unit. What should be included in the nursing plan of care?

• A. Place the infant in a warm, dry environment.
• B. Allow parents and siblings to visit.
• C. Maintain standard and contact precautions.
• D. Administer prescribed antibiotics immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain standard and contact precautions. RSV is highly contagious, primarily spreading through respiratory secretions. Therefore, it is crucial to implement infection control measures to prevent the spread of the virus within the healthcare setting. Option A is incorrect as warmth and dryness are not the primary concern in RSV management. While family support is important, allowing visits may increase the risk of spreading the infection, making option B less appropriate. Option D is incorrect because RSV is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective against viruses.

3. A parent asks a nurse how to tell the difference between measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella). What should the nurse tell the parent about rubeola that is different from rubella?

• A. High fever and Koplik spots
• B. Rash on the trunk with pruritus
• C. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps
• D. Characteristics of a cold, followed by a rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'High fever and Koplik spots.' Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a high fever and the presence of Koplik spots, which are not seen in rubella (German measles). Choice B, rash on the trunk with pruritus, is more indicative of rubella. Choice C, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, are not specific to either rubeola or rubella. Choice D, characteristics of a cold followed by a rash, is not a typical presentation of rubeola or rubella.

4. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classification. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial burns, which are not full-thickness. Choice B describes characteristics of partial-thickness burns with intact blisters, not full-thickness burns. Choice C describes characteristics of partial-thickness burns with blistering and swelling, not full-thickness burns.

5. During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inspect the child's skin color.
• B. Assess for a patent airway.
• C. Observe for symmetric breathing.
• D. Palpate the child's pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.

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