Nursing Elites

1. A 1-month-old girl with low-set ears and severe hypotonia has been diagnosed with trisomy 18. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as most likely?

• A. Interrupted family process related to the child's diagnosis
• B. Deficient knowledge related to the genetic disorder
• C. Grieving related to the child's poor prognosis
• D. Ineffective coping related to the stress of providing care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely nursing diagnosis for a 1-month-old girl with trisomy 18, characterized by low-set ears and severe hypotonia, is 'Grieving related to the child's poor prognosis.' Trisomy 18 is associated with a poor prognosis, and families often experience grief as they come to terms with the challenges and uncertainties associated with the condition. 'Interrupted family process' may not be as relevant since the primary focus is on the child's condition. 'Deficient knowledge related to the genetic disorder' could be important but may not be the most likely initial concern, as emotional support for the family is crucial at this point. 'Ineffective coping related to the stress of providing care' is a broad diagnosis that does not specifically address the emotional response to the child's prognosis, which is the primary concern in this case.

2. A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated hematocrit
• D. Absence of pedal pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting of blood, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not a typical clinical finding related to right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions causing volume overload, such as left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not directly related to right-to-left shunting but may be seen in conditions affecting peripheral circulation.

3. When you attempt to assess a 22-year-old woman who has been sexually assaulted, and she orders you not to touch her, your most appropriate initial action should be to

• A. ask the patient to sign a release form
• B. ask a female EMT-B to attempt to assess the patient
• C. explain to the patient that she must be examined
• D. transport the patient without performing an assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has requested not to be touched, indicating a need for sensitivity and understanding. Asking a female EMT-B to attempt to assess the patient is the most appropriate initial action as it respects the patient's need for privacy, comfort, and potentially reduces re-traumatization. Asking the patient to sign a release form (Choice A) is not suitable as it disregards the patient's immediate concerns. Explaining to the patient that she must be examined (Choice C) may further distress her and violate her autonomy. Transporting the patient without performing an assessment (Choice D) ignores the patient's expressed wishes and may lead to inadequate care.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a 3-month-old infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?

• A. Projectile vomiting
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Constipation
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Projectile vomiting is a classic clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis in infants. This occurs due to the narrowing of the pyloric sphincter, leading to the forceful expulsion of gastric contents in a projectile manner. Diarrhea (choice B) is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Constipation (choice C) is also not a common symptom of this condition. Abdominal distension (choice D) may occur in pyloric stenosis but is not as specific or characteristic as projectile vomiting in diagnosing this condition.

5. A 34-year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, is having a seizure. After you protect her airway and ensure adequate ventilation, you should transport her

• A. on her left side
• B. in the prone position
• C. in the supine position
• D. in a semi-sitting position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Transporting a pregnant woman who is having a seizure on her left side is crucial as it helps improve blood flow to the fetus and reduces the risk of further complications. Placing her in the prone position or supine position may compromise blood flow to the fetus and worsen the situation. A semi-sitting position is also not recommended as it may not provide optimal blood flow to the fetus or adequately protect the airway during a seizure.

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