Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Isolating the child
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 5-year-old child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis is to isolate the child. Isolating the child is crucial to prevent the spread of infection to others, as bacterial meningitis is highly contagious. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in the treatment of bacterial meningitis, but isolating the child takes precedence to protect others. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) and administering fluids (Choice D) are essential aspects of care for a child with meningitis but are not the priority intervention to prevent the spread of the infection.

2. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?

• A. Burn wound cellulitis.
• B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
• C. Burn impetigo.
• D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Invasive burn cellulitis is characterized by the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. This description aligns with the symptoms observed in the 15-year-old boy. Burn wound cellulitis (Choice A) typically presents with erythema, edema, warmth, and tenderness at the burn site, without the characteristic changes seen in this case. Burn impetigo (Choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusts, not consistent with the purplish color and foul odor described. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (Choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread desquamation of the skin, but it does not typically present with the specific findings mentioned in the scenario.

3. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of

• A. pulmonary infection
• B. right-to-left shunt of blood
• C. decreased workload on the left side of the heart
• D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent increased pulmonary vascular congestion, which can lead to congestive heart failure and respiratory distress. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but rather a result of other factors. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a characteristic of a different heart condition (e.g., Tetralogy of Fallot) and not specifically associated with PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a typical complication of PDA but rather a consequence of left-to-right shunting that can cause volume overload in the pulmonary circulation.

4. After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), what should the nurse teach a parent to do immediately after a feeding to limit vomiting?

• A. Rock the infant.
• B. Place the infant in an infant seat.
• C. Place the infant flat on the right side.
• D. Keep the infant awake with sensory stimulation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), placing the infant in an infant seat is the correct action to take immediately after feeding to limit vomiting. This position helps keep the head elevated, reducing the risk of vomiting. Rocking the infant (Choice A) may agitate the stomach and increase the likelihood of vomiting. Placing the infant flat on the right side (Choice C) is not recommended as it does not encourage proper digestion and may increase the risk of vomiting. Keeping the infant awake with sensory stimulation (Choice D) does not address the positioning concern related to vomiting in this specific post-operative scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is admitting a child with a Wilms tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor?

• A. abdominal swelling
• B. weight gain
• C. hypotension
• D. increased urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal swelling is a classic presentation and often the first noticeable sign of a Wilms tumor. This occurs due to the tumor mass in the kidney, leading to abdominal distension. Weight gain (Choice B) is less likely as a presenting symptom compared to abdominal swelling. Hypotension (Choice C) is not typically associated with a Wilms tumor unless complications like bleeding or shock occur. Increased urinary output (Choice D) is not a typical finding for Wilms tumor; instead, patients may present with hematuria or urinary symptoms.

Similar Questions