Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Isolating the child
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 5-year-old child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis is to isolate the child. Isolating the child is crucial to prevent the spread of infection to others, as bacterial meningitis is highly contagious. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in the treatment of bacterial meningitis, but isolating the child takes precedence to protect others. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) and administering fluids (Choice D) are essential aspects of care for a child with meningitis but are not the priority intervention to prevent the spread of the infection.

2. A child with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet
• B. Avoid foods high in salt
• C. Encourage a low-sodium diet
• D. Encourage a low-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a child with nephrotic syndrome, it is important to avoid foods high in salt. This instruction helps manage symptoms and prevent complications associated with the condition. High salt intake can lead to fluid retention and worsen edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Encouraging a low-sodium diet is crucial to maintaining fluid balance and reducing strain on the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a high-protein diet can further stress the kidneys, while a low-protein diet may not be necessary unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. Encouraging a low-sodium diet is more appropriate for managing nephrotic syndrome.

3. A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler’s 15-month visit, the healthcare provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse’s best response to the parent?

• A. “The dose is close enough, and it doesn’t really matter which one is given.”
• B. “From your description, the medication is not necessary. It should be avoided at this age.”
• C. “It is appropriate to use dosages based on age. Children typically have weights consistent for their age groups.”
• D. “The prescribed dose of the drug was based on weight, and this is a more accurate way of determining a therapeutic dose.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing accounts for individual variations in drug metabolism and distribution, ensuring a more precise and safer medication administration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the importance of weight-based dosing in children, potentially leading to inappropriate dosing and safety concerns.

4. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being discharged from the hospital. What is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels once a day
• B. Follow a strict meal plan
• C. Administer insulin only when blood glucose is high
• D. Recognize signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is essential for managing type 1 diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia, which occurs when blood glucose levels drop too low, can be dangerous and requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels more frequently than once a day, following a strict meal plan, and administering insulin only when blood glucose is high are important aspects of diabetes management but recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is crucial as it enables prompt action to prevent adverse outcomes.

5. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. Which of the following statements regarding crowning is true?

• A. Crowning represents the end of the second stage of labor.
• B. Crowning always occurs immediately after the amniotic sac has ruptured.
• C. It is safe to transport the patient during crowning if the hospital is close.
• D. Gentle pressure should be applied to the baby's head during crowning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During crowning, it is essential to apply gentle pressure to the baby's head to prevent rapid delivery, which can lead to potential injuries to both the mother and the baby. Choice A is incorrect because crowning signifies the beginning, not the end, of the second stage of labor. Choice B is incorrect as crowning can occur before or after the amniotic sac ruptures. Choice C is incorrect as transporting the patient during crowning, even if the hospital is close, can be unsafe due to the risk of rapid delivery and complications.

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