the nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis what behavior by the nurse addresses this clients psychosocial need for acceptance
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis. What behavior by the nurse addresses this client's psychosocial need for acceptance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to join a support group is the best option to address the client's psychosocial need for acceptance. Support groups provide a sense of belonging, understanding, and acceptance from peers who share similar experiences. This helps the client feel accepted despite their condition. Wearing gloves when providing care, shaking hands during an introduction, and allowing the client to express feelings openly are important but do not directly address the client's need for acceptance.

2. The mother of a school-age child calls the school to ask when her daughter can return to school after treatment for Pediculosis capitis. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'After the treatment kills all the live lice.' The child can return to school once all live lice are eliminated to prevent the spread of Pediculosis capitis. This is essential as live lice are highly contagious. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Waiting for the itching to stop or for an epidemic to subside does not ensure that all live lice are eradicated, which is crucial to prevent reinfestation and transmission.

3. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.

4. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

5. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

Similar Questions

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