Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle.
• B. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds.
• C. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields.
• D. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility is to auscultate the entire lung region. This approach allows the nurse to identify any diminished breath sounds, crackles, or wheezes that may indicate respiratory issues. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (Choice A) may not provide a comprehensive assessment of lung sounds. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (Choice C) may miss important findings in the lower lung fields. Assessing the patient at least every 4 hours (Choice D) is important for monitoring overall patient condition but does not specifically address the assessment of respiratory complications related to immobility.

2. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess oral cavity.
• B. Assess room for drafts.
• C. Assess ankles for edema.
• D. Assess for reduced sensations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.

3. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?

• A. A patient with neck surgery
• B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
• C. A patient with a total knee replacement
• D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.

4. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
• B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

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