the nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder what should the nurse do
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.

3. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

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