the nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder what should the nurse do
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.

2. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has a yellowish tint to the skin. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn presents with a yellowish tint to the skin, it can indicate jaundice, which is caused by elevated bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's bilirubin levels is crucial to assess the severity of jaundice and determine the need for further intervention. Reassuring the parents without proper assessment could lead to delayed treatment if jaundice is present. Increasing the frequency of feedings may not address the underlying cause of jaundice. Administering phototherapy is a treatment option that should be based on bilirubin level assessment and healthcare provider's recommendation.

3. When preparing to administer blood to a client, what is the most important action to ensure client safety during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important action to ensure client safety during a blood transfusion is to implement multiple safety checks. Checking the client’s blood type compatibility is crucial as it helps prevent major transfusion reactions. Monitoring the client for signs of transfusion reaction is essential to detect any adverse reactions early. Verifying the correct client and blood product with another healthcare professional adds an extra layer of safety by ensuring the right blood is administered to the right patient. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer because each action plays a vital role in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client during a blood transfusion. Options A, B, and C are not exclusive; they complement each other to provide comprehensive safety measures.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

5. What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.

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