the nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder what should the nurse do
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.

2. A client's daughter phones the charge nurse to report that the night nurse did not provide good care for her mother. What response should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to ask for a description of what happened during the night. This allows the nurse to gather specific information about the care provided and address the complaint appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the concern by stating that all staff are doing their best does not address the specific complaint. Choice C is not the best immediate response as the charge nurse should first gather information before escalating the issue to the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on reassurance without addressing the reported issue.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Asterixis. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver disease that necessitates immediate attention. While jaundice (choice A), ascites (choice B), and spider angiomas (choice C) are common clinical findings in cirrhosis, asterixis is the most concerning due to its association with hepatic encephalopathy, which can lead to altered mental status and even coma. Jaundice, ascites, and spider angiomas are also important signs in cirrhosis, but asterixis indicates a more critical condition requiring urgent intervention.

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