a client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide lasix which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.

3. Which membrane lines the abdominal cavity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peritoneum. The peritoneum is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity, providing support to abdominal organs and serving as a conduit for their blood vessels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. The perineum refers to the area between the anus and the external genitalia, the pericardium is the membrane enclosing the heart, and the pleura is the membrane surrounding the lungs.

4. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is beginning to form a decubitus ulcer at the coccyx. Which intervention will be most helpful in preventing further development of the decubitus ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to eat foods high in protein is crucial in preventing further development of decubitus ulcers as high protein foods support tissue repair and skin integrity. Adequate protein intake is essential for wound healing. Assessing the client for daily range of motion exercises is important for preventing complications related to immobility, but it may not directly address the prevention of decubitus ulcers. Teaching the family how to perform sterile wound care is significant for wound management but may not be the most effective intervention to prevent further development of decubitus ulcers. Ensuring IV fluids are administered as prescribed is essential for maintaining hydration status but is not the most relevant intervention for preventing decubitus ulcers.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

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