Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

2. A client who has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Avoid close contact with others until treatment is complete
• B. Take all prescribed medications as directed
• C. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the healthcare provider
• D. Wear a mask when in public places

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take all prescribed medications as directed.' This instruction is the most important because adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial in treating tuberculosis effectively and preventing the development of drug-resistant TB. While choice A is important for infection control, ensuring treatment adherence through proper medication intake takes precedence. Choice C is also essential for monitoring progress but is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is relevant for preventing transmission but is not as crucial as ensuring proper treatment by taking medications as directed.

3. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 400 mg/mL
• B. 500 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 350 mg/mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?

• A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
• B. It can cause drowsiness
• C. It should be taken with meals
• D. Completing the full course is crucial

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.

5. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer an epinephrine injection
• B. Call for immediate medical help
• C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.

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