the nurse is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses dvts which action will the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs). Which action will the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs) is to measure the calf circumference of both legs. This helps in detecting swelling or changes that may indicate the presence of a DVT. Removing elastic stockings every 4 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and can disrupt circulation. Lightly rubbing the lower leg for redness and tenderness (Choice C) can potentially dislodge a clot if present. Dorsiflexing the foot while assessing for patient discomfort (Choice D) is not a specific assessment for DVT and may not provide relevant information in this context.

2. A client has been on bed rest for several weeks. Which finding should the nurse identify as the priority during assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing left lower extremity tenderness as it could indicate deep vein thrombosis, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Musculoskeletal weakness, loss of appetite, and increased heart rate during physical activity are important but not as critical as a potential thrombotic event that could lead to life-threatening complications. Deep vein thrombosis is a common risk for individuals on prolonged bed rest due to reduced mobility and blood stasis.

3. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.

5. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.” This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.

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