Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

2. The nurse is teaching childbirth preparation classes. One woman asks about her rights to develop a birthing plan. Which response made by the nurse would be best?

• A. "What is your reason for wanting such a plan?"
• B. "Have you talked with your health care provider about this?"
• C. "Let us discuss your rights as a couple."
• D. "Write your ideal plan for the next class."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discussing the rights as a couple allows for open communication and helps ensure that the birthing plan aligns with the couple's preferences and medical advice.

3. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.

4. Manny Pacquiao, a Filipino and world boxing champion, used to advertise a muscle pain-relieving drug popularly known in the Philippine market. What can be an equally effective medicinal alternative, especially in far-flung communities and provinces, to relieve muscles and joint pains and prove to be non-costly?

• A. Sambong
• B. Lagundi
• C. Akapulko
• D. Yerba Buena

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Yerba Buena is a suitable alternative for muscle and joint pain relief, particularly in remote areas due to its cost-effectiveness and proven efficacy. Sambong is more commonly used for urinary tract problems, Lagundi is known for respiratory conditions, and Akapulko is primarily used for skin diseases, making them less effective alternatives for muscle and joint pain relief.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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