Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

2. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

3. The client with Raynaud's phenomenon would benefit most by which teaching intervention?

• A. Stop smoking
• B. Keep feet dry
• C. Reduce stress
• D. Avoid caffeine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop smoking. Smoking causes vasoconstriction, worsening the symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Quitting smoking is crucial in managing this condition effectively. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the pathophysiology of Raynaud's phenomenon. While keeping feet dry and reducing stress can be beneficial for overall health, they are not as directly linked to managing Raynaud's phenomenon as smoking cessation.

4. The family health care plan includes the following listed in sequence:

• A. objective, statement of the problem, intervention, and evaluation
• B. objectives, intervention, evaluation, and statement of the problem
• C. evaluation, statement of the problems, objectives, and interventions
• D. statement of the problems, objectives, intervention, and evaluation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a family health care plan, the correct sequence should start with identifying the problems (statement of the problems), setting objectives, planning interventions, and then evaluating the outcomes. This sequence ensures a logical and structured approach to healthcare planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not follow the logical order of healthcare planning steps.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Constipation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

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