Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

2. The appropriate order of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes:

• A. Cord clamping and cutting, controlled cord traction, ergometrine administration, and inspection to ensure the placenta is intact.
• B. Intravenous oxytocin, cord clamping and cutting, and fundal massage.
• C. Intramuscular injection of oxytocin, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus, and uterine massage.
• D. Controlled cord traction, fundal massage, and oxytocin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes intramuscular injection of oxytocin to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus to facilitate placental delivery, and uterine massage to aid in uterine contraction and prevent excessive bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because ergometrine administration is not routinely recommended in active management. Choice B is incorrect as intravenous oxytocin is not the preferred route of administration. Choice D is incorrect as the order of steps is not accurate.

3. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

• A. "Feedings can begin in 5 to 7 days."
• B. "The use of the feeding tube can begin immediately."
• C. "The stomach contents and air must be drained first."
• D. "The incision healing must be complete before feeding."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

4. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

5. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

• A. A male with a serum cholesterol level of 199 mg/dl.
• B. A female with a serum cholesterol level of 201 mg/dl.
• C. A male with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 200 mg/dl.
• D. A female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 160 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.

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