HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The healthcare provider receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?
- A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
- B. Review the intake and output record
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first intervention should be to check the drainage tubing for a kink. This step is crucial as any kinks in the tubing could obstruct urine flow, leading to a decreased output. By ensuring the tubing is free from any obstructions, the healthcare provider can address a potential mechanical issue causing the low output before considering other interventions. Reviewing the intake and output record may provide valuable information but should come after ensuring the tubing is clear. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done later if needed, but the immediate concern is to check for any obstructions. Giving the client water to drink may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.
3. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to a painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.
4. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?
- A. Number of staff-induced injuries
- B. Client satisfaction survey
- C. Healthcare-associated infection rate
- D. Rate of needle-stick injuries by nurses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - Healthcare-associated infection rate. Acrylic nails can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. By implementing a policy to remove acrylic nails, the goal is to reduce the infection rate. Monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate will provide a direct measure of the policy's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. This measure is more specific and directly related to the objective of reducing the risk of infections compared to the other choices.
5. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
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