Nursing Elites

1. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four specific cardiac defects: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries rather than tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D includes an atrial septal defect, which is not part of the classic presentation of tetralogy of Fallot.

2. A group of nursing students is reviewing the components of the endocrine system. The students demonstrate understanding of the review when they identify what as the primary function of this system?

• A. Regulation of water balance
• B. Hormonal secretion
• C. Cellular metabolism
• D. Growth stimulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hormonal secretion' (Choice B). The primary function of the endocrine system is to secrete hormones that regulate various bodily functions such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction. Choice A, 'Regulation of water balance,' is primarily controlled by the kidneys and the urinary system, not the endocrine system. Choice C, 'Cellular metabolism,' is more directly related to the functions of individual cells rather than the overall function of the endocrine system. Choice D, 'Growth stimulation,' is a function that can be influenced by hormones secreted by the endocrine system, but it is not the primary function of the system.

3. The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?

• A. infection
• B. hypertension
• C. encephalopathy
• D. edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial to detect early signs of infection. Infection is a common complication in nephrotic syndrome, and fever can be an early indicator. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) is a neurological complication and would present with altered mental status rather than a change in temperature. Edema (choice D) is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

4. What should the nurse advise the parents of a child with asthma on preventing asthma attacks?

• A. Avoid exposure to allergens
• B. Encourage regular exercise
• C. Provide a high-protein diet
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the parents to avoid exposure to allergens. Asthma attacks are commonly triggered by allergens such as pollen, dust mites, pet dander, and mold. By minimizing the child's contact with these triggers, the likelihood of asthma attacks can be reduced. Encouraging regular exercise can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly prevent asthma attacks. Providing a high-protein diet and increasing fluid intake are important for general health but are not specific preventive measures for asthma attacks.

5. A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. “Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors.”
• B. “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.”
• C. “It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable.”
• D. “This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.' At 18 months old, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and testing boundaries. It is normal for them to exhibit behaviors such as temper tantrums and defiance as they explore their independence. Choice A is incorrect as discipline at this age is more about setting limits and providing guidance rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach for managing toddler behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the described behavior is typical of toddlers asserting independence, not related to the initiative stage of development. The best response involves acknowledging the child's developmental stage and understanding that these behaviors are part of their normal growth and development.

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