Nursing Elites

1. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four specific cardiac defects: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries rather than tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D includes an atrial septal defect, which is not part of the classic presentation of tetralogy of Fallot.

2. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, a healthcare professional decides to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the healthcare provider. Below what apical pulse did the healthcare professional withhold the medication?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is an indicator to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that affects the heart, and in pediatric patients, monitoring the pulse rate is crucial due to the risk of bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a potential side effect. In this case, an apical pulse of 90 beats/min or lower indicates a heart rate that may be too slow for a child of this age, warranting the withholding of digoxin and prompt notification of the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are not within the critical range specified for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child and would not necessitate withholding the medication.

3. What should the nurse include when teaching an adolescent about tinea pedis?

• A. Keep your feet moist and open to the air as much as possible.
• B. Dry the area between your toes thoroughly.
• C. Wear nylon or synthetic socks every day.
• D. Go barefoot when you are in the school locker room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct way to prevent tinea pedis is by keeping the feet dry, especially between the toes, to decrease the risk of fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the feet moist can promote fungal growth. Choice C is incorrect because nylon or synthetic socks can trap moisture, contributing to the growth of fungi. Choice D is incorrect as going barefoot in public, especially in areas like locker rooms, increases the risk of contracting tinea pedis.

4. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Deficient fluid volume related to dehydration
• B. Excess fluid volume related to edema
• C. Deficient knowledge related to fluid intake regimen
• D. Imbalanced nutrition related to excess weight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus is deficient fluid volume related to dehydration. Diabetes insipidus causes excessive thirst and urination, leading to fluid imbalance and potential dehydration. Choice B, excess fluid volume related to edema, is not a priority as diabetes insipidus is characterized by fluid loss, not retention. Choice C, deficient knowledge related to fluid intake regimen, may be important but is not the priority when the child is at risk of dehydration. Choice D, imbalanced nutrition related to excess weight, is not directly associated with the primary concern of fluid volume imbalance in diabetes insipidus.

5. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?

• A. abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation
• B. rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
• C. visible peristalsis and weight loss
• D. distention of the lower abdomen and constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. The obstruction at the pyloric sphincter causes visible peristalsis as the stomach tries to push food through the narrowed opening, leading to the appearance of waves across the abdomen. Weight loss occurs due to poor feeding and frequent vomiting associated with pyloric stenosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation, rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds, as well as distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not typically seen in pyloric stenosis.

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