HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Test Bank
1. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
- B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
- C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
- D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four specific cardiac defects: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries rather than tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D includes an atrial septal defect, which is not part of the classic presentation of tetralogy of Fallot.
2. The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions
- C. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask
- D. Make sure there are no children under the age of 5 months around the infected child
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.
3. A practical nurse (PN) is providing education to a client who is starting therapy with metformin for type 2 diabetes. What side effect should the client be instructed to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Muscle pain
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Nausea is a common side effect of metformin, especially when the medication is first started. It is essential for the client to report persistent or severe nausea to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical side effect of metformin; in fact, metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is a potential side effect of some diabetes medications, but metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia. Muscle pain (Choice C) is not a common side effect of metformin; it is more commonly associated with other medications like statins.
4. A client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery needs care. Which task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?
- A. Teach deep breathing and coughing to the client.
- B. Assist the client to select food choices from the menu.
- C. Evaluate the client’s response to pain medication.
- D. Monitor the characteristics of the client's chest tube drainage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the client with food choices is a task that can be safely delegated to assistive personnel. This task does not require nursing judgment or specialized skills. Choices A, C, and D involve assessing the client's condition, response to treatment, and monitoring critical aspects of care, which are nursing responsibilities that necessitate specialized knowledge and judgment. Teaching deep breathing and coughing (A), evaluating pain medication response (C), and monitoring chest tube drainage (D) require a higher level of training and expertise that should be performed by the nurse.
5. A client who had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago reports tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the client’s calcium levels.
- B. Administer a dose of calcium gluconate.
- C. Assess the client's incision site for bleeding.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Checking calcium levels is crucial as it helps in diagnosing hypocalcemia accurately. Administering calcium without knowing the actual calcium levels can be dangerous. Assessing the incision site for bleeding is important but not the priority in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after assessing and managing the immediate concern of hypocalcemia.