Nursing Elites

1. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four specific cardiac defects: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries rather than tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D includes an atrial septal defect, which is not part of the classic presentation of tetralogy of Fallot.

2. An 8-year-old child with the diagnosis of meningitis is to have a lumbar puncture. What should the nurse explain is the purpose of this procedure?

• A. To measure the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid
• B. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis
• C. To relieve intracranial pressure
• D. To assess the presence of infection in the spinal fluid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This sample helps in diagnosing conditions such as meningitis by evaluating the presence of pathogens or abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fluid. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (Choice A) is not the main objective of a lumbar puncture, although it can be done during the procedure. Relieving intracranial pressure (Choice C) is not the direct purpose of a lumbar puncture, as other interventions are typically used for this purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid (Choice D) is related to the overall goal of obtaining a sample for analysis, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.

3. A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. What is the most important nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Monitor for signs of pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. When a child is undergoing chemotherapy, their immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial to promptly identify and treat any potential infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although monitoring for bleeding, dehydration, and pain are important aspects of care, the priority for a child receiving chemotherapy is to prevent and detect infections due to their increased vulnerability.

4. A 3-month-old infant has been hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What is the priority intervention?

• A. Administering an antiviral agent
• B. Clustering care to conserve energy
• C. Offering oral fluids to promote hydration
• D. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is clustering care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often struggle to breathe and require rest periods to recover. Clustering care involves organizing nursing activities to allow for rest intervals, reducing the infant's energy expenditure and aiding recovery. Administering antiviral agents is not the primary intervention for RSV since it is a viral infection, and antiviral medications may not be effective against RSV. While offering oral fluids is crucial for hydration, it may not be the priority when the infant is having respiratory difficulties. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary can help with coughing but is not the priority intervention for managing RSV in this scenario.

5. The nurse is assessing a child with a possible fracture. What would the nurse identify as the most reliable indicator?

• A. Lack of spontaneous movement
• B. Point tenderness
• C. Bruising
• D. Inability to bear weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It is a localized tenderness experienced when pressure is applied to a specific area, suggesting a potential fracture. This tenderness is considered more specific to a fracture than other symptoms such as lack of spontaneous movement, bruising, or inability to bear weight. Lack of spontaneous movement and inability to bear weight can be present in various musculoskeletal injuries, while bruising may not always be immediate or specific to a fracture.

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