the nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what
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1. The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.

2. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

3. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

4. The parents of a child who has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause of the pain?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstructed blood flow. In sickle cell anemia, the sickle-shaped red blood cells can clump together, obstructing blood flow in the vessels. This obstruction leads to tissue hypoxia (lack of oxygen) and necrosis, causing pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is not a characteristic symptom of sickle cell anemia.

5. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

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