the nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what
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1. The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.

2. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

3. An older adult with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was recently admitted to the hospital with heart failure (HF). Which actions should the nurse take in providing care? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with COPD and HF, monitoring electrolyte levels is essential due to potential imbalances caused by medications or fluid shifts. Maintaining pulse oximetry is crucial to assess oxygenation status in COPD and HF. Providing assistance with mobility helps prevent deconditioning and complications. Therefore, all the actions mentioned are necessary for comprehensive care in this scenario, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all important aspects of managing COPD and HF, ensuring holistic and effective care.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

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