Nursing Elites

1. The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?

• A. Experiences an elevation in temperature.
• B. Sleeps on the left side.
• C. Cries vigorously.
• D. Eats.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.

2. When performing postural drainage on a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?

• A. Obtain arterial blood gases (ABGs) before the procedure.
• B. Explain that the client may be positioned in five different ways.
• C. Assist the patient into a position that will allow gravity to move secretions.
• D. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing throughout the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct approach when performing postural drainage on a client with COPD is to assist the patient into a position that allows gravity to help move secretions. This position helps drain secretions from specific segments of the lungs. Obtaining arterial blood gases (Choice A) is not directly related to postural drainage. While the client may be placed in multiple positions during postural drainage, the key is to position them to facilitate the movement of secretions, not just any five positions as mentioned in Choice B. Encouraging deep breathing (Choice D) is a good nursing intervention for overall respiratory health but is not specifically related to the technique of postural drainage.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of severe eye pain and blurred vision. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Place an eye patch over the affected eye.
• D. Prepare the client for a CT scan.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B). Sudden severe eye pain and blurred vision can indicate acute angle-closure glaucoma, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent vision loss. Administering pain medication (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Placing an eye patch (Choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the exact cause of the symptoms. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) is not the immediate priority in this situation where urgent medical attention is needed.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about coronary artery disease (CAD) preventive health. Which behavior stated by the client indicates a need for additional information and teaching?

• A. Increasing physical activity.
• B. Eating a low-fat diet.
• C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day.
• D. Monitoring blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day is not sufficient for CAD prevention. Smoking cessation is crucial in reducing the risk of CAD. While increasing physical activity, eating a low-fat diet, and monitoring blood pressure regularly are all positive behaviors for CAD prevention, quitting smoking should be emphasized due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

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