HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?
- A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
- B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
- C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
- D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.
2. An older adult woman with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough, is anxious, and is complaining of dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative
- B. Encourage client to drink water
- C. Apply a high flow venturi mask
- D. Assist her to an upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Placing the client upright helps improve lung expansion by reducing diaphragmatic pressure, facilitating better air exchange, and increasing oxygenation. This position also aids in easing breathing efforts. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may further depress the respiratory system, worsening the breathing problem. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice B) may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by COPD. Applying a high flow venturi mask (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but assisting the client to an upright position should be the priority to optimize respiratory function.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
- C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
- D. Insulin shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Stop taking insulin until feeling better
- B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- C. Consume high-carbohydrate foods only
- D. Check blood glucose levels frequently
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to check blood glucose levels frequently. During illness, such as nausea and vomiting, managing blood glucose levels is crucial in clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently helps in adjusting insulin doses appropriately, preventing complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because stopping insulin abruptly can lead to serious complications. Choice B is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as high-carbohydrate foods may further affect blood glucose levels negatively.
5. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
- B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.
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