Nursing Elites

1. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

• A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
• C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
• D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. In peritoneal dialysis, hyperglycemia can occur due to the glucose content of the dialysate solution. This high glucose concentration can lead to increased blood sugar levels in the client. Option A, Hypertension, is a common complication in chronic renal failure but is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis. Option C, Hypokalemia, is more commonly associated with loop diuretics or inadequate potassium intake. Option D, Hypernatremia, is more often seen in conditions of excessive sodium intake or water loss, rather than in peritoneal dialysis.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

4. As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?

• A. Decrease the analgesic dosage by half
• B. Discontinue the analgesic
• C. Continue the same analgesic dosage
• D. Prescribe a less potent drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.

5. Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?

• A. Risk factors for heart disease.
• B. Dietary management of obesity.
• C. Suicide risks and prevention.
• D. Coping with stressful situations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.

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