the nurse explains to the parent of a 2 year old child that the toddlers negativism is expected at this age what need is this behavior meeting the nurse explains to the parent of a 2 year old child that the toddlers negativism is expected at this age what need is this behavior meeting
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HESI LPN

HESI Pediatrics Quizlet

1. The caregiver explains to the parent of a 2-year-old child that the toddler’s negativism is expected at this age. What need is this behavior meeting?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Negativism in toddlers is a common behavior at this age as they begin to assert their independence and show a desire to control their environment. Choice A, 'Trust,' does not align with the behavior of negativism, as it is more about the child's growing autonomy. Choice B, 'Attention,' while important for child development, is not the primary need being met by negativism in this context. Choice C, 'Discipline,' though important in guiding behavior, is not the underlying need being expressed through negativism. Therefore, the correct answer is D, 'Independence,' as toddlers exhibit negativism as a way to assert their independence and autonomy.

2. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.

3. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

4. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

5. The client is preparing for discharge following treatment for heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to manage fluid retention. Option A is correct as daily weight monitoring helps track for fluid retention. Option B is correct as worsening leg swelling should prompt contacting the healthcare provider. Option D is correct as limiting salt intake is essential in managing heart failure. Therefore, option C is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

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