Nursing Elites

1. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
• B. Dark-colored urine
• C. Abdominal distention
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a classic sign of liver dysfunction in clients with cirrhosis. Jaundice indicates the accumulation of bilirubin in the body due to impaired liver function. This finding suggests worsening liver damage and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management. Dark-colored urine (choice B) is also a concerning symptom in liver disease, indicating possible bilirubin presence, but it is not as urgent as jaundice. Abdominal distention (choice C) and confusion (choice D) are common in cirrhosis but do not indicate an immediate need for healthcare provider notification compared to jajsondice.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
• B. Check the client's urine output
• C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
• D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.

5. A client has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, and a nurse is initiating a protective environment. Which precaution should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction in the area.
• B. Place the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients.
• C. Allow the client to visit public areas freely.
• D. Ensure the client does not need any special precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to maintain a protective environment to prevent infections. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially if there is construction in the area, helps reduce the risk of exposure to harmful pathogens. This precaution is essential as the client's immune system is compromised post-transplant. Placing the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients (choice B) would increase the risk of infections as it exposes the client to a higher pathogen load. Allowing the client to visit public areas freely (choice C) is not recommended due to the higher risk of exposure to infections. Ensuring the client does not need any special precautions (choice D) is incorrect because clients post allogeneic stem cell transplant require protective measures to prevent complications.

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