HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client has an order for 1000 ml of D5W over an 8-hour period. The nurse discovers that 800 ml has been infused after 4 hours. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Ask the client if there are any breathing problems
- B. Have the client void as much as possible
- C. Check the vital signs
- D. Auscultate the lungs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Auscultate the lungs. When a significant amount of fluid has been infused, especially in a short period, it is crucial to assess for signs of fluid overload or pulmonary complications, such as crackles or decreased breath sounds. This can be achieved by auscultating the lungs. Choice A, asking the client about breathing problems, may provide valuable information, but direct assessment through auscultation takes priority. Choice B, having the client void, and Choice C, checking vital signs, are important nursing actions but are not as urgent as assessing the lungs for potential complications in this scenario.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?
- A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
- B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
- C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
- D. When the patient requests it.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?
- A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
- D. Simvastatin (Zocor)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?
- A. 0.5 ml
- B. 1 ml
- C. 1.5 ml
- D. 2 ml
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.
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