Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis (TB) test to a client. Which of the following is the correct method for administering this test?

• A. Intradermal injection on the forearm
• B. Subcutaneous injection on the upper arm
• C. Intramuscular injection on the deltoid
• D. Oral administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method for administering a tuberculosis (TB) test is through an intradermal injection on the forearm. This technique allows for the proper administration of the test under the skin to assess the body's response to the TB antigen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the TB test specifically requires an intradermal injection, not subcutaneous, intramuscular, or oral administration.

2. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

3. The nurse is assessing a 12-year-old who has Hemophilia A. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

• A. An excess of red blood cells
• B. An excess of white blood cells
• C. A deficiency of clotting factor VIII
• D. A deficiency of clotting factors VIII and IX

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A deficiency of clotting factor VIII. Hemophilia A is characterized by a lack of clotting factor VIII, which is crucial for blood clotting. This deficiency results in prolonged bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no association between Hemophilia A and an excess of red blood cells (Choice A) or an excess of white blood cells (Choice B). Additionally, Hemophilia A specifically involves a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, not both factors VIII and IX (Choice D).

4. What does the acronym ICD stand for in medical terminology?

• A. International Classification of Diseases
• B. Internal Care Documentation
• C. Intensive Care Division
• D. Integrated Care Department

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Classification of Diseases. The ICD is a system used worldwide to classify and code various health conditions and diseases. This system helps in standardizing the documentation and coding of diseases, which is essential for epidemiology, research, and healthcare management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the widely recognized meaning of the acronym ICD in medical terminology.

5. The major target of the Philippine Family Program are women belonging to the high-risk group which includes:

• A. Women under 20 or over 35 years old
• B. Women suffering from certain medical conditions that contradict pregnancy
• C. All these groups
• D. Women who have had at least 4 deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'All these groups.' The Philippine Family Program targets women under 20 years old, over 35 years old, those with certain medical conditions that contradict pregnancy, and women who have had at least 4 deliveries. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer because it encompasses all the high-risk groups identified by the program. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not cover all the specified high-risk groups targeted by the program.

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