Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?

• A. infection
• B. hypertension
• C. encephalopathy
• D. edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial for detecting early signs of infection, a common complication in this condition. In nephrotic syndrome, the child's immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for fever or any changes in temperature can help healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent further complications. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) refers to brain dysfunction and is not a common complication of nephrotic syndrome. Edema (choice D) is a primary manifestation of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

2. The nurse is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the nurse include as a major congenital anomaly?

• A. Overlapping digits
• B. Polydactyly
• C. Umbilical hernia
• D. Cleft palate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly because it involves a gap or split in the roof of the mouth, which can significantly impact feeding, speech development, dental health, and overall well-being. Overlapping digits (Choice A) and polydactyly (Choice B) are examples of limb abnormalities rather than major congenital anomalies affecting vital functions. Umbilical hernia (Choice C) is a common condition where abdominal organs protrude through the belly button and is typically not considered a major congenital anomaly in the same way as cleft palate.

3. A child with diabetes insipidus is being treated with vasopressin. The nurse would assess the child closely for signs and symptoms of which condition?

• A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
• B. Thyroid storm
• C. Cushing syndrome
• D. Vitamin D toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Vasopressin is a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. However, an excessive dose of vasopressin can lead to water retention, causing SIADH, which is characterized by dilutional hyponatremia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Thyroid storm is a severe form of hyperthyroidism characterized by increased metabolism and can lead to life-threatening complications. Cushing syndrome results from excess cortisol production and is characterized by weight gain, hypertension, and other features. Vitamin D toxicity occurs due to an overdose of vitamin D, leading to hypercalcemia and symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and weakness.

4. The child has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?

• A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
• B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
• D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in managing pain effectively during a sickle cell crisis. This step allows the nurse to objectively evaluate the child's pain level and tailor the pain management plan accordingly. Administering medication without a proper assessment could lead to inappropriate pain management. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct therapies but should not replace the initial pain assessment. Meperidine is not typically the first-line choice for pain management in sickle cell crisis due to its potential for neurotoxic metabolites.

5. After eating, a child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be placed in what position as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position after eating is beneficial for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. This position helps prevent gastric contents from flowing back into the esophagus. The supine position (choice A) may worsen reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in reflux, leading to discomfort and regurgitation. Prone position (choice B) is not recommended after eating as it may cause discomfort and increase the risk of aspiration due to pressure on the stomach. Trendelenburg position (choice D), with the head lower than the rest of the body, is not indicated for managing GERD after eating and may not provide the desired benefits in this context.

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