Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, what nursing care should be included?

• A. Elevating the head and not giving anything by mouth
• B. Elevating the head at all times
• C. Administering glucose water only during feedings
• D. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, it is essential to elevate the head and avoid giving anything by mouth. Elevating the head helps prevent aspiration, and withholding oral intake reduces the risk of complications like aspiration pneumonia. Elevating the head at all times (choice B) is overly restrictive and unnecessary. Administering glucose water only during feedings (choice C) is not recommended as it can still lead to aspiration. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic (choice D) is incorrect because maintaining airway patency may require suctioning, irrespective of cyanosis, in a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula.

2. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the primary goal of therapy during the acute phase?

• A. Preventing coronary artery aneurysms
• B. Reducing fever
• C. Improving cardiac function
• D. Preventing dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary goal of therapy during the acute phase of Kawasaki disease is to prevent coronary artery aneurysms, which are a serious complication of this condition. Coronary artery aneurysms can lead to long-term cardiovascular issues, making prevention crucial. While reducing fever and improving cardiac function are important aspects of managing Kawasaki disease, the primary focus in the acute phase is on preventing coronary artery aneurysms. Dehydration prevention is also essential but not the primary goal during the acute phase of this disease.

3. You are called to a residence for a "sick" 5-year-old child. When you arrive and begin your assessment, you note that the child is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Management of this child should consist of

• A. 100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask and rapid transport
• B. positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device and rapid transport
• C. chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport
• D. back blows and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pediatric patient with an unconscious state, a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, and a heart rate of 50 beats/min, the appropriate management involves chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport. These signs indicate severe respiratory and circulatory compromise, requiring immediate intervention to support breathing and circulation. Choice A (100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask) is not sufficient in this critical situation as the child requires more than just oxygen supplementation. Choice B (positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device) may be needed, but chest compressions are crucial in this scenario due to the presence of bradycardia. Choice D (back blows and chest thrusts) are not indicated for an unconscious child with respiratory and circulatory compromise; instead, immediate chest compressions are necessary to provide circulatory support.

4. A child with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering pancreatic enzymes
• B. Providing respiratory therapy
• C. Providing nutritional support
• D. Encouraging physical activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering pancreatic enzymes. In cystic fibrosis, there is a deficiency in pancreatic enzymes, leading to poor digestion and malabsorption of nutrients. Administering pancreatic enzymes is essential to ensure proper digestion and absorption of nutrients. Providing respiratory therapy and nutritional support are important aspects of care for a child with cystic fibrosis, but addressing the pancreatic enzyme deficiency takes priority in this scenario. Encouraging physical activity is beneficial for overall health but is not the priority intervention in this case.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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