HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?
- A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
- B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
- C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
- D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.
2. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with an IV infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Elevate the affected arm
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion. Pain and swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires immediate discontinuation of the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage or infection. Slowing the rate of infusion, applying a warm compress, or elevating the affected arm would not address the underlying issue of infiltration or phlebitis and could potentially worsen the condition by allowing more fluid to infiltrate the tissues.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The client reports drinking a glass of water at midnight. What should the nurse do?
- A. Notify the anesthesiologist
- B. Document the intake in the medical record
- C. Cancel the surgery
- D. Instruct the client to fast until the surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the anesthesiologist. When a client reports drinking water close to the time of surgery, it is important to inform the anesthesiologist as it can impact the administration of anesthesia. The anesthesiologist needs this information to make decisions regarding anesthesia administration. Documenting the intake in the medical record is important for documentation purposes, but the immediate action needed is to inform the anesthesiologist. Canceling the surgery is not necessary based solely on the intake of water; the anesthesiologist will determine the appropriate course of action. Instructing the client to fast until the surgery may not be appropriate without consulting the anesthesiologist first, as the situation needs to be assessed by the anesthesia team.
5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
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