Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?

• A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
• B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
• C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
• D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.

2. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
• C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
• D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?

• A. Regular physical activity
• B. Scheduled sleep patterns
• C. Social interaction with family and friends
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.

4. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?

• A. Approximately 26 cm
• B. Between 24 to 28 cm
• C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
• D. Below the xiphoid process

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Between 24 to 28 cm.' Fundal height is expected to be approximately equal to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks, the fundal height should typically range between 24 to 28 cm. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height is not an exact measurement of gestational age in centimeters. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a general description above the umbilicus, which is not specific to 26 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect as the fundal height would not reach below the xiphoid process at 26 weeks gestation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
• B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
• D. BUN 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.

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