Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?

• A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
• B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
• C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
• D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

• A. Administer morphine for pain relief.
• B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises.
• C. Position the client flat in bed.
• D. Restrict fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.

3. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

4. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

5. After placing a client at 26-weeks gestation in the lithotomy position, the client complains of dizziness and becomes pale and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Place a wedge under the client's hip.
• C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
• D. Remove the client's legs from the stirrups.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a wedge under the client's hip is the correct action in this scenario. This helps relieve the pressure on the vena cava, which can become compressed in the lithotomy position during pregnancy, improving circulation and reducing symptoms like dizziness and pallor. Instructing the client to take deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice C) would worsen the situation by further compressing the vena cava. Removing the client's legs from the stirrups (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the issue.

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