the nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease which lab value is most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.

3. The nurse is in charge of a Nursing unit in a long-term care facility. Which task is best for the nurse to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is helping with the care of several clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the perineal area is a task within the scope of practice for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) and is crucial for preventing infections. Choice A involves a more complex task that requires a healthcare provider's assessment. Choice C involves a sterile procedure that should be performed by licensed staff. Choice D involves specific care for a client with a catheter that exceeds the UAP's scope of practice.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing in COPD patients. While administering bronchodilator therapy as prescribed (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice B) can be beneficial but do not take precedence over positioning for improved respiratory function. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) can be considered after the initial positioning to relieve respiratory distress, making it a later intervention.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

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