Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

2. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

• A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
• B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
• C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
• D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

3. A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?

• A. Moon face, slow wound healing, muscle wasting, sodium and water retention
• B. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor
• C. Bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies and periorbital edema
• D. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cushingoid side effects are characteristic of excess corticosteroid use, such as dexamethasone. These include moon face (rounding of the face), slow wound healing, muscle wasting, and sodium and water retention. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with Cushingoid side effects. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor (Option B) are not typical of Cushingoid effects, while bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies, and periorbital edema (Option C) are more indicative of hypothyroidism. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, and hypotension (Option D) are not classical features of Cushingoid side effects.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs
• B. Use oxygen only when experiencing shortness of breath
• C. Do not adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider
• D. Use a humidifier with the oxygen to prevent dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD prescribed oxygen therapy is not to adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider. This is crucial because too much oxygen can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the oxygen flow rate without medical advice can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as oxygen therapy should be used as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to ensure the correct oxygen flow rate rather than using a humidifier.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• C. Expect to feel better immediately.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

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