Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

3. The nurse notes that a postoperative client's wound site is red and slightly swollen. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Apply an ice pack
• B. Document the findings and monitor
• C. Notify the surgeon
• D. Clean the wound with sterile saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the surgeon. Redness and swelling at a wound site can indicate an infection, which may require medical intervention. Applying an ice pack (choice A) is not appropriate without further assessment. While documenting the findings and monitoring (choice B) is important, it should be accompanied by notifying the surgeon for further evaluation. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (choice D) may not be sufficient if an infection is present, so immediate communication with the surgeon is crucial.

4. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

5. What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?

• A. Accepts and interprets signals of sexual stimuli
• B. Secretes mucus to facilitate sperm transport
• C. Serves as the site for union of ovum and sperm
• D. Receives the penis during intercourse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.

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