Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN calls security and has physical restraints applied when a client who was admitted voluntarily becomes both physically and verbally abusive while demanding to be discharged from the hospital. Which represents the possible legal ramifications for the nurse associated with these interventions? Select one that does not apply.

• A. false imprisonment
• B. Battery
• C. Assault
• D. Slander

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the possible legal ramifications for the nurse could include battery, assault, and false imprisonment. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent, which could be perceived when applying physical restraints. Assault is the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, creating fear in the individual, which can result from the verbal threats and physical actions of the patient. False imprisonment occurs when a person is unlawfully restrained, which may apply if the patient was involuntarily restrained. Slander, on the other hand, is the oral defamation of character, which does not align with the actions described in the scenario, making it the choice that does not apply.

2. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the LPN/LVN asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. Yes, I am the leader today. Would you like to be the leader tomorrow?
• B. Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?
• C. Yes, I have been assigned to be the leader of this group. I will be here for the next six weeks.
• D. Yes, I am the leader. You seem angry about not being the leader yourself.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is choice B: 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?' This response acknowledges the member's comment and encourages her to share her interests, promoting engagement and active participation in group activities. Choice A is not as inclusive and may not foster collaboration within the group. Choice C focuses more on the nurse's assignment rather than addressing the member's input. Choice D assumes emotions that were not expressed by the group member and does not encourage open communication.

3. A female client with depression attends group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

• A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
• B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
• C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
• D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response is to explore ways for the client to cope with anxiety (D). The nurse should encourage problem-solving rather than dependence on the case manager (A) for transportation. While taking medication for anxiety before riding the bus may be helpful, addressing coping strategies should come first (B). Although discussing the feelings of anxiety can be therapeutic (C), the most appropriate approach is to engage the client in finding ways to manage her anxiety effectively.

4. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
• B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
• C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
• D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

Similar Questions