HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
- B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
- C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.
2. A client who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is exhibiting manipulative behavior. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Set clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior.
- B. Ignore the manipulative behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
- C. Remind the client that manipulative behavior is unacceptable.
- D. Explain the consequences of manipulative behavior to the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Setting clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior is the most important intervention for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. This approach helps establish boundaries, maintain a therapeutic environment, and provide structure for the client. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring manipulative behavior can lead to its reinforcement. Choice C, while important, may not be as effective as directly setting limits. Choice D focuses on consequences rather than immediate intervention, making it less effective than setting clear limits.
3. A young adult male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a recent suicide attempt. His wife filed for divorce six months ago, he lost his job three months ago, and his best friend moved to another city two weeks ago. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to interact with individuals who are recovering from depression.
- B. Allow the client time alone to sort out his feelings.
- C. Avoid discussing topics that upset the client.
- D. Encourage activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment can be therapeutic in cases of depression and stress. It helps improve the client's sense of agency, which is essential for promoting feelings of empowerment and self-worth. Choice A could potentially be overwhelming for the client, especially considering his recent suicide attempt and ongoing stressors. Choice B might not be the most beneficial intervention as isolation could further exacerbate feelings of loneliness and hopelessness. Choice C, avoiding discussing upsetting subjects, may prevent the client from addressing and processing his emotions, hindering therapeutic progress.
4. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with
- A. dissociative disorder.
- B. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
- C. panic disorder.
- D. post-traumatic stress disorder.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: dissociative disorder. Sleepwalking, amnesia, and multiple personalities are examples of detaching emotional conflict from one's consciousness, which is the definition of a dissociative disorder. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (B) is characterized by persistent, recurrent intrusive thoughts or urges (obsessions) and compulsions. Panic disorder (C) is characterized by acute attacks of anxiety. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves re-experiencing psychologically distressing events.
5. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
- B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
- C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
- D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.
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