Nursing Elites

1. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

2. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

3. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric ward of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his

• A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
• B. anger about being hospitalized.
• C. low self-esteem.
• D. phobic fear of food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: low self-esteem. Delusions of persecution, like being poisoned, are often rooted in underlying issues of low self-esteem and trust. Option A is incorrect because the delusion is not necessarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues. Option B is incorrect as there is no information provided that suggests the client's delusion is driven by anger about being hospitalized. Option D is incorrect as the delusion is about being poisoned, not a phobic fear of food.

4. What is the most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder who engages in self-mutilating behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to stop hurting themselves.
• B. Discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming.
• C. Inform the client that the behavior will be reported to their doctor.
• D. Ask the client why they hurt themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder engaging in self-mutilating behavior is to discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming. This approach helps in exploring the underlying triggers and emotions that lead to self-harm. Option A is directive and may come across as judgmental rather than empathetic. Option C can lead to feelings of betrayal and breach of trust. Option D is a closed-ended question that may not facilitate open communication or exploration of emotions.

5. A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication via a nasogastric tube.
• B. Substitute an injectable form of the medication.
• C. Encourage the client to take the medicine because it will help her sleep.
• D. Document in the client's record that the medication was refused.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. It's crucial to document the medication refusal accurately in the client's record. Administering the medication via a nasogastric tube or substituting it with an injectable form would violate the client's right to refuse treatment and should only be considered in extreme cases after consulting with the healthcare team. Encouraging the client to take the medication because it will help her sleep disregards her autonomy and choice in the matter.

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