a female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health

1. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

2. A client who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is exhibiting manipulative behavior. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior is the most important intervention for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. This approach helps establish boundaries, maintain a therapeutic environment, and provide structure for the client. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring manipulative behavior can lead to its reinforcement. Choice C, while important, may not be as effective as directly setting limits. Choice D focuses on consequences rather than immediate intervention, making it less effective than setting clear limits.

3. A client is being successfully treated with clozapine (Clozaril). Which of the following statements by the client reflects a need for further teaching about managing the drug's adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A reflects a need for further teaching as the client mistakenly believes that eating too many fruits causes constipation, showing a misunderstanding about dietary fiber's role in preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate understanding of managing clozapine's adverse effects, such as taking it with food to avoid nausea, getting up slowly to prevent dizziness, and pushing oneself when feeling sleepy.

4. The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to the unit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after admitting a depressed client is to maintain safety (B). Depression increases the risk of suicide; hence ensuring a safe environment is the priority. While monitoring appetite (A), providing supportive contact (C), and encouraging participation in activities (D) are important aspects of care for a depressed client, ensuring safety takes precedence in the initial phase of admission.

5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

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