Nursing Elites

1. Your pediatric patient weighs 15.8 kg. How many pounds does this child weigh?

• A. 36 pounds
• B. 33.6 pounds
• C. 35 pounds
• D. 34.8 pounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To convert 15.8 kg to pounds, you multiply by the conversion factor of 2.20462. So, 15.8 kg * 2.20462 = 34.8 pounds. Therefore, the child weighs 34.8 pounds. Choice A is incorrect as it is higher than the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it is lower than the correct answer. Choice C is incorrect as it rounds down the conversion result, leading to an inaccurate weight measurement.

2. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with hypovolemia. Which IV solution should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. 3% sodium chloride
• B. 10% dextrose in water
• C. 0.45% sodium chloride
• D. Lactated Ringer's solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lactated Ringer's solution is the most suitable IV solution for a patient with hypovolemia. It is a balanced crystalloid solution containing electrolytes such as sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate, which closely resemble the body's natural fluids. This solution helps to restore intravascular volume and electrolyte balance in hypovolemic patients. Choice A, 3% sodium chloride, is a hypertonic solution used for specific situations like severe hyponatremia or cerebral edema, not typically for hypovolemia. Choice B, 10% dextrose in water, is a hypertonic solution primarily used for providing calories and free water, not for volume expansion. Choice C, 0.45% sodium chloride, is a hypotonic solution used for conditions like hypernatremia or as maintenance fluid, not for hypovolemia.

3. What is the expected date of delivery for a woman whose last menstrual period was on April 20th?

• A. January 20th
• B. January 27th
• C. January 29th
• D. January 31st

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The expected date of delivery is calculated by adding 9 months and 7 days to the last menstrual period. For April 20th, the expected date is January 27th. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, January 20th, is incorrect as it does not account for the additional 7 days. Choice C, January 29th, and Choice D, January 31st, are also incorrect as they do not consider the standard calculation method for estimating the due date.

4. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.

• A. 38 gtts/min
• B. 42 gtts/min
• C. 50 gtts/min
• D. 40 gtts/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.

5. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

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