HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?
- A. Providing nail care
- B. Teaching foot care
- C. Making the patient's bed
- D. Determining aspiration risk
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is making the patient's bed. Delegating bed-making tasks to nursing assistive personnel is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and helps free up the nurse's time to focus on tasks that require their specialized skills and knowledge. Providing nail care and teaching foot care involve direct patient care and education, which should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Determining aspiration risk requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, making it a responsibility of the nurse.
4. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?
- A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
- B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
- C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
- D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
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