Nursing Elites

1. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

2. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

• A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
• B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
• C. Decreased white blood cell count.
• D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

3. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

• A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
• B. Only review the client’s current medications.
• C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
• D. Discuss the client’s medication history without verification.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.

4. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.

• A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
• B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
• C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
• D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.

5. A healthcare professional is providing care to a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the professional take to prevent complications?

• A. Clean around the stoma with povidone-iodine.
• B. Maintain sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
• C. Use clean technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
• D. Change tracheostomy ties weekly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential in preventing infections and complications. Option A is incorrect because povidone-iodine may be too harsh for cleaning around the stoma and can lead to skin irritation. Option C is incorrect because suctioning a tracheostomy should be done using sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens. Option D is incorrect as tracheostomy ties need to be changed more frequently, usually every 1-2 days, to prevent skin breakdown and infection.

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