Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

• A. History of congestive heart failure
• B. History of an egg allergy
• C. History of pneumococcal vaccination
• D. History of end-stage renal disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

• A. 5-10 minutes before meals
• B. 15 minutes after meals
• C. 30 minutes before meals
• D. 1 hour after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

3. A practical nurse (PN) is providing education to a client who is starting therapy with metformin for type 2 diabetes. What side effect should the client be instructed to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Nausea is a common side effect of metformin, especially when the medication is first started. It is essential for the client to report persistent or severe nausea to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical side effect of metformin; in fact, metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is a potential side effect of some diabetes medications, but metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia. Muscle pain (Choice C) is not a common side effect of metformin; it is more commonly associated with other medications like statins.

4. What information should the practical nurse provide to a female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day and reports slight anorexia, while also experiencing urinary frequency?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid instead of cranberry juice to reduce the anorexia.
• B. Continue to take the medication with a sip of cranberry juice, restricting fluids until the frequency is controlled.
• C. Continue to drink cranberry juice, but take the medicine on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
• D. Take the medication with a spoonful of ice cream or applesauce and avoid drinking cranberry juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the client to take sulfonamides with a full glass of water to help prevent crystalluria. It is essential to take the medication on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before eating or 2 hours after eating to maximize its absorption and effectiveness. Continuing to drink cranberry juice is beneficial, but it is important to take the medicine separately to enhance its therapeutic action.

5. A healthcare professional prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min, respirations are 16 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.

• A. Administer the dose and monitor the client's blood pressure regularly
• B. Apply a telemetry monitor before administering the dose
• C. Assess for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose
• D. Withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's low heart rate of 48 beats/min indicates bradycardia, a potential side effect of labetalol. Administering the dose in this case could further lower the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and guidance. Choice A is incorrect because administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is not relevant in this situation as telemetry monitoring is not the priority. Choice C is also not the priority in this case, as the focus should be on the client's bradycardia and the potential adverse effects of administering labetalol.

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