the health care provider hcp has prescribed a 74 year old client to be vaccinated with the influenza vaccine prior to discharge which client condition
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

2. A client with an exacerbation of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should assess the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tremors. Albuterol, a beta-agonist medication commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations, can lead to tremors as a side effect. Tremors result from the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, particularly in the hands. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are generally not common side effects of albuterol. Insomnia (Choice C) is less likely to occur with albuterol, as it is a stimulant and can cause alertness rather than sleep disturbances. Dry mouth (Choice D) is not a typical side effect associated with albuterol use.

3. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.

4. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.

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