Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

• A. History of congestive heart failure
• B. History of an egg allergy
• C. History of pneumococcal vaccination
• D. History of end-stage renal disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

• A. 5-10 minutes before meals
• B. 15 minutes after meals
• C. 30 minutes before meals
• D. 1 hour after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

4. A client who is in the rehabilitation facility with newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease (PD) has levodopa-carbidopa prescribed. During the care planning session for this client, the nurse discusses which aspects with the other members of the health care team? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Ask the dietician to avoid increasing the amounts of foods high in Vitamin B6.
• B. Lessening of tremors
• C. Remind others on the team that this medication will not relieve all symptoms of PD.
• D. Ask the evening shift nurses to give the last dose earlier in the day if the client has insomnia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Levodopa-carbidopa is a medication commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease (PD). It can cause side effects such as hypotension with sudden position changes. To assist the client in managing this side effect, the physical therapy assistant can help avoid sudden position changes. Additionally, if insomnia occurs, adjusting the timing of the last dose earlier in the day can be beneficial. It is important to note that drowsiness can also be a side effect of the medication and should be reported to the nurse. Foods high in Vitamin B6 can interfere with the absorption of levodopa-carbidopa; hence, it is advisable to avoid increasing the consumption of such foods. Lastly, it is crucial to remind the team that while this medication helps alleviate symptoms like tremors, it may not relieve all symptoms of PD comprehensively.

5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed ziprasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. QT prolongation
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: QT prolongation. Ziprasidone is known to cause QT prolongation, which can potentially lead to serious cardiac issues. Monitoring the client's ECG is crucial to detect any changes and prevent adverse effects related to QT interval prolongation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not commonly associated with ziprasidone. While weight gain can be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not a prominent side effect of ziprasidone. Dry mouth and increased appetite are also not typically linked to ziprasidone use.

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