the health care provider hcp has prescribed a 74 year old client to be vaccinated with the influenza vaccine prior to discharge which client condition
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed darbepoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Darbepoetin alfa, used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication stimulates red blood cell production, which can increase blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is crucial to detect and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia are not commonly associated with darbepoetin alfa therapy in chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

4. A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.

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