HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
- A. 30 drops per minute
- B. 25 drops per minute
- C. 20 drops per minute
- D. 22 drops per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
2. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
- B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
- C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
- D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.
3. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?
- A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
- B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
- C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
- D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.
4. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)
- A. Reduce IV access
- B. Limit length of visits
- C. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL per day
- D. Conduct frequent neurologic checks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.
5. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
- A. Appendicitis is more common among females than males.
- B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis.
- C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
- D. McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.
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