Nursing Elites

1. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?

• A. Administer the oral agents immediately after the test.
• B. Notify the diagnostic department and request orders.
• C. Notify the physician and request orders.
• D. Administer the oral agents with a sip of water before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.

2. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

• A. No change
• B. Less insulin
• C. More insulin
• D. Oral antidiabetic agents

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.

3. A client with DM has an above-knee amputation because of severe peripheral vascular disease. Two days following surgery, when preparing the client for dinner, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?

• A. Check the client's serum glucose level
• B. Assist the client out of bed to the chair
• C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• D. Ensure that the client's residual limb is elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's serum glucose level. In a client with diabetes who just had surgery, monitoring the serum glucose level is crucial to ensure proper management of the condition. This helps in preventing complications related to blood sugar fluctuations. Assisting the client out of bed may be important but not the primary responsibility at this time. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position or ensuring the residual limb is elevated are important interventions for comfort and circulation but are not the primary concern in this scenario.

4. Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?

• A. Using outdated research
• B. Relying on personal experience alone
• C. Integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence
• D. Disregarding patient preferences

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.

5. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

• A. Insulin overdose
• B. Removal of the adrenal gland
• C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
• D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

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