HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.
- A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
- B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
- C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
- D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.
2. When reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient, which basic principle of teaching should you follow?
- A. Sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex.
- B. Assume that the patient knows little or nothing about the topic.
- C. Tell the patient to call their significant other so you can instruct them.
- D. Use medically oriented terms so the patient will be able to speak with the doctor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct principle of teaching to follow when reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient is to sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex. This approach facilitates learning by building upon simpler concepts before moving to more advanced ones. Choice B is incorrect because assuming the patient knows little or nothing about the topic may not always be accurate and can be patronizing. Choice C is incorrect as it does not focus on the direct teaching approach to the patient. Choice D is incorrect as using medically oriented terms may confuse the patient rather than facilitate understanding.
3. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?
- A. Administer the oral agents immediately after the test.
- B. Notify the diagnostic department and request orders.
- C. Notify the physician and request orders.
- D. Administer the oral agents with a sip of water before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.
4. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of:
- A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
- D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low birth weight is defined as 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. This means that any newborn weighing 2500 grams or less is considered to have a low birth weight, irrespective of how many weeks they were in the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they specify a weight of 1500 grams or less, which is not the standard definition of low birth weight. The correct definition is 2500 grams or less, not influenced by gestational age.
5. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?
- A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
- B. A male patient with hypothyroidism
- C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism
- D. An adolescent with a closed head injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access