phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections uti which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for
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HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections (UTI). Which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for the administration of phenazopyridine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine, a urinary analgesic, is utilized to alleviate the pain associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) like burning, pain, urgency, and frequent voiding. The administration of phenazopyridine can cause the urine to turn a bright red-orange color. It is recommended to take this medication with food to reduce gastric irritation. Phenazopyridine should only be used for a maximum of 2 days when taken alongside an antibacterial agent, which is typically prescribed for about 2 weeks to treat the underlying infection.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

3. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

4. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.

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