phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections uti which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for
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HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections (UTI). Which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for the administration of phenazopyridine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine, a urinary analgesic, is utilized to alleviate the pain associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) like burning, pain, urgency, and frequent voiding. The administration of phenazopyridine can cause the urine to turn a bright red-orange color. It is recommended to take this medication with food to reduce gastric irritation. Phenazopyridine should only be used for a maximum of 2 days when taken alongside an antibacterial agent, which is typically prescribed for about 2 weeks to treat the underlying infection.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed oxcarbazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyponatremia. Oxcarbazepine, an anticonvulsant used in bipolar disorder, can lead to hyponatremia. This is because it can cause the body to retain water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels in the blood. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Agranulocytosis is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Liver toxicity is a potential adverse effect of some medications but not commonly seen with oxcarbazepine. While weight gain can be a side effect of certain medications used in bipolar disorder treatment, it is not a common adverse effect of oxcarbazepine.

3. The practical nurse is assigned a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding is likely to predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypokalemia predisposes a client on digoxin to digoxin toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular (AV) dissociation. Therefore, assessment of serum potassium levels and prompt correction of hypokalemia are crucial interventions for clients taking digoxin.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.

5. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

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