HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Nurse Andy has finished teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to administer insulin. He evaluates the learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?
- A. I should check my blood sugar immediately prior to the administration.
- B. I should provide direct pressure over the site following the injection.
- C. I should use the abdominal area only for insulin injections.
- D. I should only use a calibrated insulin syringe for the injections.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using a calibrated insulin syringe is crucial for accurate dosing when administering insulin. Choice A is incorrect because checking blood sugar before administration is essential but not the specific evaluation of learning in this context. Choice B is incorrect as applying direct pressure over the injection site is not a key indicator of learning about insulin administration. Choice C is incorrect as insulin injections can also be administered in other sites like the thigh or arm; it is not limited to the abdominal area.
2. What is the primary goal of public health?
- A. To focus on individual patient care
- B. To improve the health of populations
- C. To reduce healthcare costs
- D. To increase hospital admissions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of public health is to improve the health of populations by focusing on prevention, health promotion, and addressing the social determinants of health. Choice A is incorrect because public health looks at health from a population perspective rather than focusing on individual patient care. Choice C, while a potential benefit, is not the primary goal of public health. Choice D is incorrect as increasing hospital admissions is not a goal of public health; in fact, public health aims to prevent unnecessary hospitalizations through preventive measures.
3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
4. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?
- A. The client with renal failure
- B. The client who is taking diuretics
- C. The client with hyperaldosteronism
- D. The client who is taking corticosteroids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.
5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?
- A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
- B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
- C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
- D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.
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