HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of:
- A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
- D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low birth weight is defined as 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. This means that any newborn weighing 2500 grams or less is considered to have a low birth weight, irrespective of how many weeks they were in the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they specify a weight of 1500 grams or less, which is not the standard definition of low birth weight. The correct definition is 2500 grams or less, not influenced by gestational age.
2. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?
- A. Inevitable
- B. Missed
- C. Habitual
- D. Threatened
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Habitual.' Habitual abortion is defined as three or more consecutive miscarriages, making it the appropriate term for this situation. Choice A, 'Inevitable,' refers to a miscarriage that cannot be prevented. Choice B, 'Missed,' refers to a miscarriage where the fetus has died but has not been expelled. Choice D, 'Threatened,' refers to a situation where there is bleeding in early pregnancy but the cervix remains closed.
3. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?
- A. Potassium
- B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
- C. Serum amylase
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.
4. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?
- A. Alcoholism
- B. Renal insufficiency
- C. Hypoparathyroidism
- D. Tumor lysis syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.
5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?
- A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
- B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
- C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
- D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.
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