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HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. Which type of practice is most similar to research-based practice?
- A. Best practices
- B. Evidence-based practice
- C. Benchmark practices
- D. Standard-based practice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice relies on research to guide clinical decisions, mirroring the approach of research-based practice. Choice A, Best practices, refers to established methods or techniques that are widely accepted as superior. Choice C, Benchmark practices, typically involves setting standards or goals for performance comparison. Choice D, Standard-based practice, usually pertains to adhering to established norms or guidelines.
2. The healthcare provider provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Peas
- B. Oranges
- C. Apples
- D. Peanut butter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oranges are not high in magnesium. The other choices, such as peas, are good sources of magnesium. Peas, along with cauliflower and canned white tuna, are foods rich in magnesium. Oranges, although healthy, are not known for their high magnesium content.
3. What is the significance of patient advocacy in nursing?
- A. Prioritizing the needs of the healthcare team over the patient
- B. Ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected
- C. Limiting patient autonomy
- D. Focusing solely on clinical procedures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patient advocacy in nursing entails ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected. This involves advocating for the patients' best interests, supporting informed decision-making, and safeguarding their autonomy. Choice A is incorrect because patient advocacy focuses on the patient's needs, not the healthcare team's. Choice C is incorrect as patient advocacy aims to empower patients and enhance their autonomy rather than limiting it. Choice D is incorrect since patient advocacy goes beyond clinical procedures to encompass holistic care that addresses the patients' preferences and rights.
4. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.
- A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
- B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
- C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
- D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.
5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?
- A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
- B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
- C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
- D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.
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