HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Hoarseness of the voice
- B. Slight swelling at the incision site
- C. Tingling around the mouth
- D. Mild fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hoarseness of the voice is common due to surgical manipulation, slight swelling at the incision site is expected postoperatively, and mild fever can be a normal inflammatory response. Hypocalcemia after thyroidectomy can lead to serious complications and should be addressed promptly to prevent further issues.
2. The nurse is providing care for a client with a draining postoperative wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Encourage increased oral fluids.
- B. Provide high-protein snacks.
- C. Change the wound dressing.
- D. Administer prescribed antibiotics.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering prescribed antibiotics is crucial in treating MRSA infections. MRSA is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics, including methicillin. Therefore, prompt administration of the appropriate antibiotics is essential to target the MRSA infection effectively. Encouraging increased oral fluids (Choice A) and providing high-protein snacks (Choice B) may be beneficial for overall recovery but are not the most important actions in treating an MRSA infection. Changing the wound dressing (Choice C) is important for wound care but does not directly address the infection caused by MRSA.
3. When teaching a client about managing hypertension, what dietary advice should be emphasized?
- A. Reduce sodium intake
- B. Increase potassium intake
- C. Limit alcohol consumption
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When managing hypertension, it is crucial to adopt comprehensive dietary changes. This includes reducing sodium intake to help lower blood pressure, increasing potassium intake to counteract the effects of sodium and help regulate blood pressure, and limiting alcohol consumption as excessive alcohol can raise blood pressure. Therefore, emphasizing all the options provided (A, B, and C) is essential in effectively managing hypertension and reducing overall cardiovascular risk. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as a single dietary modification but collectively work together to support blood pressure management.
4. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
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