HESI LPN
Nutrition Final Exam Quizlet
1. How should a healthcare professional manage a child with a newly inserted central venous catheter?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Restrict all physical activity
- C. Administer routine antibiotics
- D. Increase fluid intake only
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in managing a central venous catheter to prevent complications. This involves observing for redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage at the catheter site, as these can indicate an infection. Restricting physical activity unnecessarily (choice B) can hinder the child's recovery and quality of life. Administering routine antibiotics (choice C) without a confirmed infection can lead to antibiotic resistance and unnecessary side effects. Increasing fluid intake only (choice D) is not the primary intervention for managing a central venous catheter.
2. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
- B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
- C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
- D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.
3. When a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects. The correct answer is dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. This side effect can impact the patient's oral health and comfort, requiring close monitoring and appropriate interventions.
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Insomnia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication commonly used in COPD. One of the most common side effects of anticholinergics is dry mouth due to the inhibition of salivary gland function. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of ipratropium. Insomnia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of this medication. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not associated with ipratropium use. Therefore, the correct side effect to monitor for in a patient prescribed ipratropium is dry mouth.
4. The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a “4” on a 1 to 10 scale
- B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
- C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
- D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.
5. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?
- A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
- B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
- C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
- D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.