how should a nurse manage a child with a known allergy to peanuts

HESI LPN

Nutrition Final Exam Quizlet

1. How should a caregiver manage a child with a known allergy to peanuts?

A. Avoid all peanut-containing products
B. Encourage regular exposure to peanuts
C. Administer antihistamines daily
D. Recommend peanut-containing supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Avoiding peanut-containing products is crucial for managing a peanut allergy and preventing allergic reactions. Choice B suggesting regular exposure to peanuts can be harmful and trigger severe allergic reactions in a child with a peanut allergy. Regular exposure can increase the risk of anaphylaxis. Choice C of administering antihistamines daily is not a primary prevention strategy and should not be the first-line approach for managing a peanut allergy. Antihistamines only treat symptoms and do not prevent the allergic reaction. Choice D of recommending peanut-containing supplements can also lead to severe allergic reactions and is not recommended for a child with a known peanut allergy. It is essential to eliminate all sources of peanuts to prevent accidental exposure and potential life-threatening reactions.

2. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as what?

A. peer review
B. cohort review
C. research intervention
D. double-blind examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: peer review. Before publication, research findings must undergo peer review, where experts in the field evaluate the validity and significance of the study. Choice B, cohort review, is incorrect as it does not involve the same level of evaluation by experts. Choice C, research intervention, is not a term used to describe the evaluation process before publication. Choice D, double-blind examination, refers to a study design where neither the participants nor the researchers know who is receiving a particular treatment, which is not the same as the peer review process.

3. What should be assessed in a child with suspected appendicitis?

A. Level of consciousness
B. Bowel sounds and pain location
C. Skin color and temperature
D. Heart rate and blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess bowel sounds and pain location. In a child with suspected appendicitis, focusing on bowel sounds and pain location, particularly in the lower right quadrant, is crucial. This assessment helps to identify symptoms commonly associated with appendicitis. Assessing the level of consciousness (Choice A) is important in other conditions such as head injuries or neurological issues. Skin color and temperature (Choice C) are more indicative of circulatory or skin-related problems. Heart rate and blood pressure (Choice D) are vital signs that are essential to assess in various conditions but are not specific to suspected appendicitis.

4. What dietary recommendation is essential for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A. High-protein diet
B. Low-fat diet
C. Low-phenylalanine diet
D. High-fiber diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low-phenylalanine diet.' Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) need to follow a low-phenylalanine diet to manage the condition. Phenylalanine is an amino acid found in protein-containing foods, and individuals with PKU have difficulty metabolizing it, leading to neurological damage and other complications. Therefore, restricting phenylalanine intake is crucial. Choice A, 'High-protein diet,' is incorrect because high protein intake would increase phenylalanine levels, worsening the condition. Choice B, 'Low-fat diet,' and Choice D, 'High-fiber diet,' are not the primary focus for PKU patients. The key dietary intervention for PKU is controlling phenylalanine intake, which is best achieved through a low-phenylalanine diet.

5. Which measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population?

A. The Dietary Reference Intakes, as they provide a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada
B. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, as they indicate the maximum daily amount of a nutrient considered safe for most healthy people
C. The Estimated Average Requirements, as they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient needed to maintain a specific function in half of the healthy individuals of a population
D. The Recommended Dietary Allowances, as they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy individuals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are the best measure to describe the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. RDAs represent the average daily intake level that meets the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. Choice A, the Dietary Reference Intakes, provide a set of nutrient intake values but do not specifically address the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate for practically all individuals. Choice B, the Tolerable Upper Intake levels, focus on the maximum daily amount of a nutrient deemed safe for most healthy people, not the average daily amount needed. Choice C, the Estimated Average Requirements, reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient needed by half of the healthy individuals, which is not as comprehensive as the RDAs that cater to nearly all healthy people.