Nursing Elites

1. Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?

• A. Straw
• B. Spoon
• C. Syringe
• D. Cup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.

2. Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere’s disease?

• A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
• B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
• C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
• D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere’s disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere’s disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.

3. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

4. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

5. A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?

• A. Mild soap and water
• B. A cotton ball
• C. Mineral oil
• D. Alcohol swabs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.

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