Nursing Elites

1. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?

• A. To reduce strain on the incision
• B. To promote drainage of the wound
• C. To provide stimulation for the client
• D. To reduce edema at the operative site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.

2. The client is preparing for discharge following treatment for heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
• B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
• C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to manage fluid retention. Option A is correct as daily weight monitoring helps track for fluid retention. Option B is correct as worsening leg swelling should prompt contacting the healthcare provider. Option D is correct as limiting salt intake is essential in managing heart failure. Therefore, option C is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

4. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
• B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
• C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
• D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

5. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.

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