HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
- A. To reduce strain on the incision
- B. To promote drainage of the wound
- C. To provide stimulation for the client
- D. To reduce edema at the operative site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
2. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?
- A. Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine
- B. Urine has a strong odor
- C. The client reports abdominal discomfort
- D. The catheter is blocked or not draining
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if the catheter is blocked or not draining, it may need irrigation to restore proper flow. Option A, 'Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine,' does not necessarily indicate the need for irrigation as it could be within the expected range for catheter drainage. Option B, 'Urine has a strong odor,' may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not directly correlate with the need for catheter irrigation. Option C, 'The client reports abdominal discomfort,' could indicate various issues but does not specifically suggest the need for catheter irrigation.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?
- A. "Rashes are very common, especially if you have dry skin. Did it go away on its own?"
- B. "Virtually all medications have adverse effects. It sounds like this could have been an adverse effect of the antibiotic."
- C. "It's unlikely that your doctor will prescribe an antibiotic for what seems to be a minor viral infection, so we shouldn't be concerned about that rash."
- D. "We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it."
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.
5. A client has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
- B. Change the PN infusion bag every 24 hours.
- C. Prepare the client for a central venous line.
- D. Administer the PN and fat emulsion together.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client requires parenteral nutrition (PN) with a high dextrose concentration, such as 20%, it typically has a high osmolarity. High osmolarity solutions should be infused through a central venous line to prevent peripheral vein irritation and potential complications. Therefore, preparing the client for a central venous line is essential for the safe administration of PN with high dextrose. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily is important but not directly related to the need for a central venous line. Changing the PN infusion bag every 24 hours helps prevent bacterial contamination, but it is not the most critical action in this scenario. Administering the PN and fat emulsion together or separately is a matter of compatibility and administration guidelines, but it is not the key concern in this situation.
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