Nursing Elites

1. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?

• A. To reduce strain on the incision
• B. To promote drainage of the wound
• C. To provide stimulation for the client
• D. To reduce edema at the operative site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.

3. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:

• A. Check to see if the tubing is kinked.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
• C. Check the catheter insertion site.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.

4. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?

• A. Registered dietitian.
• B. Occupational therapist.
• C. Speech-language pathologist.
• D. Physical therapist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.

5. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

• A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
• B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
• C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
• D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

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