HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
- A. To reduce strain on the incision
- B. To promote drainage of the wound
- C. To provide stimulation for the client
- D. To reduce edema at the operative site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
2. A client has been on bed rest for several weeks. Which finding should the nurse identify as the priority during assessment?
- A. Musculoskeletal weakness
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. Increased heart rate during physical activity
- D. Left lower extremity tenderness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing left lower extremity tenderness as it could indicate deep vein thrombosis, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Musculoskeletal weakness, loss of appetite, and increased heart rate during physical activity are important but not as critical as a potential thrombotic event that could lead to life-threatening complications. Deep vein thrombosis is a common risk for individuals on prolonged bed rest due to reduced mobility and blood stasis.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
- A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
- D. Crepitus around the insertion site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.
4. A client requires gastric decompression, and a nurse is inserting an NG tube. Which action should the nurse take to verify proper placement of the tube?
- A. Assess the client for a gag reflex
- B. Measure the pH of the gastric aspirate
- C. Place the end of the NG tube in water to observe for bubbling
- D. Auscultate 2.5 cm (1 in) above the umbilicus while injecting 15 mL of sterile water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Measuring the pH of the gastric aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm proper placement of an NG tube. Gastric fluid has an acidic pH, typically ranging from 1 to 5. Assessing the client for a gag reflex (choice A) is important for airway protection but does not confirm tube placement. Placing the NG tube in water to observe for bubbling (choice C) is incorrect and not a reliable method for verifying placement. Auscultating 2.5 cm above the umbilicus while injecting sterile water (choice D) is an outdated method and is not recommended for verifying NG tube placement.
5. A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following items should the nurse plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?
- A. 2 cups of soup
- B. 1 quart of water
- C. 8 oz of ice chips
- D. 6 oz of tea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8 oz of ice chips. When calculating fluid intake, the nurse should document half of the volume of ice chips to account for the air in between the chips. Therefore, 8 oz of ice chips equals 120 mL of fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not equate to 120 mL of fluid intake as per the given scenario. Choice A, 2 cups of soup, is more than 120 mL. Choice B, 1 quart of water, is significantly more than 120 mL. Choice D, 6 oz of tea, is less than 120 mL.
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