HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?
- A. Curling ulcer
- B. Renal shutdown
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Hemolysis of red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.
2. While changing a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Force oral fluids
- B. Request a nutrition consult
- C. Initiate contact precautions
- D. Limit visitors to immediate family only
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a highly contagious bacterium that spreads through direct contact. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns to prevent the spread of infection to other patients or healthcare workers. Force-feeding oral fluids, requesting a nutrition consult, or limiting visitors to immediate family only are not the most appropriate actions in this scenario. These actions do not directly address the need to prevent the spread of MRSA, which is crucial in a healthcare setting.
3. When caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence, on which areas does the nurse focus care?
- A. Decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment
- B. Decreased caloric intake and accelerated wound healing
- C. High risk for skin infection and low saliva pH level
- D. High risk for impaired venous return and dementia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should focus on decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment due to the patient's conditions. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased pain sensation, making the patient more prone to injuries without realizing it. Additionally, the combination of circulatory insufficiency, peripheral neuropathy, and urinary incontinence can increase the risk of skin breakdown and impaired healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific issues related to the patient's diagnoses and symptoms.
4. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
- B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
- C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
- D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing would most accurately be described by a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations. Choice A is incorrect as 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as 'appears to be sleeping' is not an accurate description of a non-responsive state. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than stated in the scenario.
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