a client is to have mafenide sulfamylon cream applied to burned areas for which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the lpnlvn monitor this
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.

3. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.

4. When assessing a client's IV for infiltration, which finding would be unexpected for the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warmth around the infusion site is not an expected finding with infiltration. Infiltration typically presents with swelling and coolness due to the fluid leaking into the surrounding tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because swelling, coolness, and difficulty flushing the line, as well as lack of blood return, are commonly associated with infiltration.

5. The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a patient needs to be mobilized after being in bed for several days is to dangle the patient at the bedside. Dangling at the bedside is the initial step to assess the patient's tolerance to sitting up and moving. It helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's response to upright positioning before attempting further ambulation. Maintaining a narrow base of support (Choice A) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the first step. Encouraging isometric exercises (Choice C) and suggesting a high-calcium diet (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed to initiate mobilization in this scenario.

Similar Questions

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A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
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