during a visit to the community health clinic a 45 year old native american female who has a bmi of 35 complains of changes in her vision which condit
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. During a visit to the community health clinic, a 45-year-old Native American female, who has a BMI of 35, complains of changes in her vision. Which condition is most important for the RN to be aware of in the client's family history?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Given the client's Native American ethnicity, high BMI, and vision changes, diabetes is the most crucial condition for the nurse to be aware of in the client's family history. Diabetes is strongly associated with vision problems, especially diabetic retinopathy. Glaucoma (choice B) is a condition that affects the optic nerve and can lead to vision loss but is not as directly linked to the client's BMI and ethnic background. Hypertension (choice C) can also impact vision, but in this case, diabetes takes precedence based on the client's profile. Brain tumor (choice D) is less likely to be related to the client's BMI, ethnicity, and vision changes compared to diabetes.

2. A community health RN believes that immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic section of the city are probably below the target set by the state health department. What action should the RN take FIRST to intervene with this health problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the community health RN to take in this situation is to review current epidemiological population data that might document a low immunization rate. By doing so, the RN can gather evidence to support further intervention strategies. Option A is incorrect because taking a health history would not provide immediate data on immunization rates in the community. Option B is incorrect as initiating an immunization program without confirming the actual immunization rates may not address the specific needs of the community. Option D is incorrect as a blanket referral without assessing the situation may not be the most effective first step.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

4. The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.

5. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

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