duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex linked abnormality
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

2. What is the primary role of meiosis in the production of sperm and ova?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of sperm and ova. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis does not increase the chromosome number. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical copies of chromosomes. Choice D is incorrect because meiosis does not primarily function to repair damaged chromosomes.

3. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.

4. The nurse places one hand above the symphysis while massaging the fundus of a multiparous client whose uterine tone is boggy 15 minutes after delivering a 7-pound, 10-ounce (3220-gram) infant. Which information should the nurse provide to the client about these findings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After childbirth, a boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, which can lead to the formation of clots. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and expel clots, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the main concern with a boggy uterus is the risk of clot formation and postpartum hemorrhage, not solely preventing intrauterine infection, massaging the lower uterine segment, or preventing the endometrial lining from sloughing.

5. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

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