duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex linked abnormality
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

2. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome produce:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to reduced production of testosterone, the primary male sex hormone. This deficiency can result in various physical and developmental characteristics associated with the syndrome. Estrogen levels may actually be relatively elevated due to the imbalance between testosterone and estrogen. Choices C and D are incorrect as adenine and thymine are nucleotide bases found in DNA and are not related to hormone production.

3. When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.

4. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.

5. A client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes. This approach allows for the careful monitoring and adjustment of oxytocin administration during labor induction. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position can decrease blood flow to the placenta and compromise fetal oxygenation. Choice C is incorrect as titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min is not a standard practice for oxytocin administration. Choice D is incorrect as limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours is not specifically related to the administration of oxytocin for labor induction.

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