which patient is most at risk for osgood schlatter disease
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Nursing Elites

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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

2. What is the expected date of delivery for a woman whose last menstrual period was on April 20th?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The expected date of delivery is calculated by adding 9 months and 7 days to the last menstrual period. For April 20th, the expected date is January 27th. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, January 20th, is incorrect as it does not account for the additional 7 days. Choice C, January 29th, and Choice D, January 31st, are also incorrect as they do not consider the standard calculation method for estimating the due date.

3. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

4. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.

5. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.

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