HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
- A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
- B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
- C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
- D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.
2. In which position will you place your patient when they are demonstrating the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
- A. The Trendelenburg position
- B. The supine position
- C. The left lateral position
- D. The right lateral position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the Trendelenburg position. This position involves placing the patient with their legs elevated higher than their head. It is used to increase blood flow to the upper body, including the brain and heart, in cases of hypovolemic shock. This helps improve perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not facilitate the desired redistribution of blood flow needed in hypovolemic shock. The supine position is lying flat on the back, the left lateral position is lying on the left side, and the right lateral position is lying on the right side.
3. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?
- A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
- B. A male patient with hypothyroidism
- C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism
- D. An adolescent with a closed head injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.
4. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
- B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
- C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
- D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.
5. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:
- A. 8 to 12 months of age.
- B. 20 to 24 months of age.
- C. 16 to 20 months of age.
- D. 12 to 16 months of age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.
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