Nursing Elites

1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

• A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
• B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
• C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
• D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

2. What is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager?

• A. Direct patient care
• B. Financial oversight
• C. Ignoring staff concerns
• D. Minimizing staff training

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Financial oversight is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager. Healthcare managers are responsible for managing the financial aspects of healthcare facilities, including budgeting, financial planning, and ensuring financial sustainability. Direct patient care (choice A) is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, not managers. Ignoring staff concerns (choice C) is counterproductive and goes against effective management practices. Minimizing staff training (choice D) is also not a responsibility of a healthcare manager; on the contrary, they should ensure adequate training and development opportunities for their staff to improve patient care and overall performance.

3. Nurses on an inpatient care unit are working to help reduce unit costs. Which of the following actions is appropriate to include in the cost-containment plan?

• A. Store opened bottles of normal saline in a refrigerator for up to 48 hours.
• B. Return unused supplies from the bedside to the unit's supply stock.
• C. Wait to dispose of sharps containers until they are completely full.
• D. Use clean gloves rather than sterile gloves for colostomy care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using clean gloves rather than sterile gloves for colostomy care is a cost-effective measure without compromising care quality. This choice helps in reducing costs without compromising patient safety. Storing opened bottles of normal saline in a refrigerator for up to 48 hours (Choice A) may lead to contamination risks. Returning unused supplies to the unit's supply stock (Choice B) can be inefficient and lead to potential waste. Waiting to dispose of sharps containers until they are completely full (Choice C) may pose safety hazards and not directly impact cost savings.

4. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

5. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?

• A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
• B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
• C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
• D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.

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