HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
- A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
- B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
- C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
- D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.
2. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
- C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
- D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.
3. Wilms' tumor is a form of:
- A. Renal cancer.
- B. Liver cancer.
- C. Basal cell carcinoma.
- D. Brain cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wilms' tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. The correct answer is A: Renal cancer. This tumor originates in the kidneys and is most commonly found in children, with the peak incidence around 3-4 years of age. Choice B, Liver cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor specifically involves the kidneys, not the liver. Choice C, Basal cell carcinoma, is a form of skin cancer, not related to Wilms' tumor. Choice D, Brain cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor is not associated with the brain but rather with the kidneys.
4. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.
- A. Low birth weight: The neonate's weight is less than 1,500 g at the time of delivery.
- B. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate's weight ranges from the 10th to the 90th percentile.
- C. Large for gestational age: The neonate's weight is above the 99th percentile.
- D. Small for gestational age: The neonate's weight is below the 20th percentile.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) indicates a neonate's weight ranging from the 10th to the 90th percentile. This range signifies that the baby's weight is within the normal range for their gestational age. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about the criteria and do not correctly correspond to the indicated birth weight or gestational age. Low birth weight typically refers to a weight below 2,500 g, large for gestational age above the 90th percentile, and small for gestational age below the 10th percentile.
5. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
- A. 30 drops per minute
- B. 25 drops per minute
- C. 20 drops per minute
- D. 22 drops per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
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