which patient is most at risk for osgood schlatter disease
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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

2. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.

3. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 in 85 births. The rate of twin pregnancies is approximately 1 in 85 births. This means that twins are more common compared to triplets, which occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct frequency of twin pregnancies as stated in the question.

4. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such as opening the eyes and the sleep-wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent vegetative state is characterized by the absence of cognitive functioning while basic human functions like the sleep-wake cycle are retained. In this state, the patient shows reflex movements and basic responses to stimuli but lacks awareness or higher mental functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Obtunded refers to a decreased level of consciousness, not the absence of cognitive functioning. C) Locked-in syndrome is a condition where the patient is aware and awake but cannot move or communicate due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles except for vertical eye movements and blinking. D) Brain death is the irreversible cessation of all brain activity, including the brainstem, leading to the loss of all functions of the brain.

5. What percentage of term newborns have a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2% to 4%. According to research, 2% to 4% of term newborns have congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion. Choices B, C, and D provide percentages that are higher than the actual prevalence of congenital heart disease in newborns caused by environmental factors, making them incorrect.

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