Nursing Elites

1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

• A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
• B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
• C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
• D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

2. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

3. Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?

• A. Leukemia
• B. Histoplasmosis
• C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
• D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?

• A. Prolonged bed rest
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hyperparathyroidism
• D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

5. A nurse enters a client room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Educate the client about the risks of refusing medications
• B. Complete an incident report
• C. Answer the client's question concerning the procedure
• D. Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure. This ensures that the client fully understands the gastroscopy procedure before giving consent. Choice A is incorrect as the client's issue is not about refusing medications. Choice B is irrelevant as there is no incident to report. Choice C could be misleading as the nurse should not be providing information about the procedure but rather ensuring that the client gets the necessary clarification from the provider.

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