HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
- A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
- B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
- C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
- D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.
2. Which instruction should the nurse provide a client who was recently diagnosed with Raynaud's disease?
- A. Avoid cold temperatures completely.
- B. Take medications only during flare-ups.
- C. Wear gloves when removing packages from the freezer.
- D. Limit physical activity to avoid stress.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with Raynaud's disease is to wear gloves when handling cold items to prevent vasospasm. Raynaud's disease is characterized by vasospasm in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to extremities. Wearing gloves when removing packages from the freezer helps minimize exposure to cold temperatures and can prevent triggering vasospasms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding cold temperatures completely is impractical and may not always be possible. Taking medications only during flare-ups does not address prevention strategies, and limiting physical activity to avoid stress is not a primary intervention for Raynaud's disease.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Abdomen
- D. Dorsogluteal site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.
4. The home health PN suspects elder abuse after observing fresh lacerations on the arms and legs of an older adult male client who lives with his daughter. Which action is most important for the PN to take?
- A. Document the lacerations in the client's record
- B. Report findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services
- C. Ask the daughter who has been taking care of the client on a daily basis
- D. Apply dry dressings after cleansing the wounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action for the PN to take in this situation is to report the findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services. Suspected elder abuse must be reported promptly to ensure the safety and protection of the client. Documenting the lacerations in the client's record is important but not as critical as reporting the suspected abuse. Asking the daughter who is the potential abuser may not yield accurate information and could compromise the safety of the client. Applying dressings to the wounds is a lower priority compared to addressing the suspected elder abuse.
5. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?
- A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
- B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
- C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
- D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.