HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Ben injects his insulin as prescribed, but then gets busy and forgets to eat. What will the best assessment of the nurse reveal?
- A. The client will be very thirsty.
- B. The client will complain of nausea.
- C. The client will need to urinate.
- D. The client will have moist skin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In this scenario, since Ben took his insulin but forgot to eat, he is at risk of developing hypoglycemia. Moist skin is a sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low. Thirstiness (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels). Nausea (choice B) and frequent urination (choice C) are not typical immediate signs of hypoglycemia caused by missing a meal after insulin administration.
2. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
3. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
- B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
- C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
- D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.
4. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
5. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
- A. Appendicitis is more common among females than males.
- B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis.
- C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
- D. McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access