Nursing Elites

1. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.

2. What is a priority when providing care for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy?

• A. Keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry
• B. Providing regular oral hygiene
• C. Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring a patent airway
• D. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy, the priority is to monitor for signs of infection and ensure a patent airway. This is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction or infection. While keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry is important for overall care, it is not the highest priority when compared to ensuring a patent airway. Providing regular oral hygiene is essential for the patient's comfort but takes a secondary role to maintaining airway patency. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe may be beneficial but is not as critical as monitoring for infection and keeping the airway clear.

3. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
• B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
• C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
• D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.

4. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

• A. Down syndrome
• B. Fragile X syndrome
• C. Prader-Willi syndrome
• D. Turner syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.

5. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?

• A. Due date
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Gravida and parity
• D. Fundal height

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.

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