HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
2. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
3. A client presents to the office with complaints of swelling in the legs, chills, and shortness of breath. During auscultation of the chest, a heart murmur is heard. The client's blood culture reveals a microorganism in the blood. When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called
- A. Bacteremia
- B. Sepsis
- C. Septicemia
- D. Parasitic infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called bacteremia, which refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, as indicated by a positive blood culture. If not appropriately treated, bacteremia can progress to septicemia, also known as sepsis. Sepsis is a severe and life-threatening response to an infection, characterized by systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction. Parasitic infections involve pathogens other than bacteria and are not directly related to the scenario described.
4. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
- B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
- C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.
5. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?
- A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
- B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
- C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
- D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access