Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse include in the care plan for a 6-month-old infant admitted with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?

• A. Provide small, frequent feedings
• B. Administer antibiotics
• C. Maintain strict isolation
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in the care plan for an infant with RSV as it helps improve breathing by facilitating better airflow and drainage of secretions. This position can also enhance comfort and reduce respiratory distress. Providing small, frequent feedings (Choice A) is generally beneficial for infants but is not specific to managing RSV. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Maintaining strict isolation (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of contagious infections but is not a direct intervention for improving the infant's respiratory status in RSV.

2. The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old boy whose parents brought him to the clinic when they noticed that the right side of his abdomen was swollen. What finding would suggest this child has a neuroblastoma?

• A. The child has a maculopapular rash on his palms.
• B. The parents report that their son is vomiting and not eating well.
• C. The parents report that their son is irritable and not gaining weight.
• D. Auscultation reveals wheezing with diminished lung sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vomiting and poor appetite can be symptoms of neuroblastoma, a malignancy that affects the adrenal glands and sympathetic nervous system. A maculopapular rash on the palms (Choice A) is not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Irritability and poor weight gain (Choice C) may be non-specific findings and do not specifically point towards neuroblastoma. Auscultation findings of wheezing with diminished lung sounds (Choice D) are more indicative of respiratory conditions rather than neuroblastoma.

3. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take before administering a tube feeding to an infant?

• A. Irrigate the tube with water.
• B. Offer a pacifier to the infant.
• C. Slowly instill 10 mL of formula.
• D. Place the infant in the Trendelenburg position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to offer a pacifier to the infant before administering tube feeding. Offering a pacifier helps stimulate the sucking reflex, preparing the infant for feeding and promoting digestion and comfort. Irrigating the tube with water (Choice A) is not typically the first action before tube feeding and may not be necessary. Slowly instilling formula (Choice C) should only be done after the infant is prepared for feeding. Placing the infant in the Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not necessary and may not be recommended for tube feeding.

4. What should be included in the preoperative teaching for a 4-year-old child scheduled for a tonsillectomy?

• A. Explaining the procedure in detail
• B. Encouraging deep breathing exercises
• C. Discussing the importance of hydration
• D. Using play therapy to prepare the child

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging deep breathing exercises is important preoperative teaching for a child scheduled for a tonsillectomy. Deep breathing exercises can help the child relax and reduce anxiety, which is beneficial before the procedure. Explaining the procedure in detail might be overwhelming for a 4-year-old, whereas encouraging deep breathing exercises can be more beneficial in promoting relaxation and preparing the child. Discussing the importance of hydration is crucial for postoperative care but may not be the priority for preoperative teaching. Using play therapy can help prepare the child, but encouraging deep breathing exercises is more directly related to relaxation and preparation for the procedure.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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